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Class 11 Chemistry NCERT Solutions

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Class 11 Chemistry NCERT Solutions

Every NCERT exercise from all nine rationalised Class 11 Chemistry chapters, worked line by line in the board pattern, in the official numbering. The marks here are won in the setup: write the mole ratio before balancing, count electrons explicitly when filling orbitals, assign oxidation numbers before balancing a redox equation, and never drop a term from a Kc or Kp expression. One page, the whole Class 11 syllabus, in the order your exam actually uses.

Class:11Subject:ChemistryCovers:CBSE · JEE · NEET
23 Key Formulas
DWritten byDeep Narayan
Updated
Key Concept Summary

Where can I find Class 11 Chemistry NCERT solutions chapter-wise?

Right here — all nine rationalised Class 11 Chemistry chapters, with every NCERT exercise solved step by step in the official numbering. Use the chapter map below, then jump to the matching chapter's full revision notes from the related links.

01

How to Use These NCERT Solutions

Each chapter below opens with the key idea and then walks through every NCERT exercise question, in the official numbering, from start to finish. Follow each line of working with a pencil before checking your own attempt.

Board pattern

CBSE awards method marks, not just the final number. State the formula or law, substitute values with their units, simplify step by step, then box the answer with its unit. In this chapter set that means: draw the mole triangle or write the balanced equation first, count electrons explicitly when writing electronic configurations, assign oxidation numbers before balancing a redox reaction, and never cancel a pure solid or liquid from an equilibrium constant.

Pair with the revision notes

For theory, definitions and exam pointers chapter by chapter, use the Class 11 Chemistry Notes hub. These solutions complement that hub — same NCERT order, worked problems instead of theory.
02

Chapter 1 — Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Chemistry deals with the composition, structure and properties of matter, and the changes it undergoes. This chapter fixes the language of the subject: the mole, molar mass, molecular and empirical formulas, percentage composition, stoichiometry and the limiting reagent. It also covers scientific notation, significant figures, prefixes and the laws of chemical combination (including multiple proportions) — the quantitative toolkit that CBSE, JEE and NEET all test. Every question below is from the NCERT Class 11 textbook (rationalised edition), worked line by line in the board pattern.

Board pattern

Mole and stoichiometry questions are the surest marks on this chapter. Always write the formula first — molarity, mole ratio or mass-percent — then substitute with units shown, and box the final answer with its unit. Write molar masses before using them, keep track of limiting reagents explicitly, and carry the correct number of significant figures. A clean two-line working gets the method marks even if the arithmetic slips.

Work these in order: first the molar-mass and percentage-composition questions (1.1–1.3), then the stoichiometry runs (1.4–1.12), measurement and significant figures (1.13–1.22), the limiting-reagent and reaction questions (1.23–1.36). The list below enumerates the solved exercises included here.

03

NCERT Exercise 1.1 — Molar Masses of Water, Carbon Dioxide and Methane

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) H₂O: the molecular mass of water equals the sum of the atomic masses of its constituent atoms.
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4Rounded to two decimals: 18.02 u.
  5. 5(ii) CO₂.
  6. 6
  7. 7(iii) CH₄.
  8. 8

Final answer

(i) 18.02 u (ii) 44.01 u (iii) 16.043 u.

04

NCERT Exercise 1.2 — Mass Per Cent of Elements in Sodium Sulphate

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1First find the molar mass of sodium sulphate.
  2. 2
  3. 3Mass percent of an element is given by:
  4. 4
  5. 5Mass percent of sodium:
  6. 6
  7. 7Mass percent of sulphur:
  8. 8
  9. 9Mass percent of oxygen (present as 4 atoms, mass 4 × 16.00 = 64.0 g):
  10. 10

Final answer

Na = 32.4%, S = 22.6%, O = 45.05%.

05

NCERT Exercise 1.3 — Empirical Formula of an Iron Oxide

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Per cent of iron by mass = 69.9%; per cent of oxygen by mass = 30.1% (given).
  2. 2Relative moles of each element = mass per cent ÷ atomic mass.
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5Simplest molar ratio of iron to oxygen:
  6. 6
  7. 7The empirical formula is therefore Fe₂O₃.

Final answer

Empirical formula = Fe₂O₃.

06

NCERT Exercise 1.4 — Carbon Dioxide Produced When Carbon Is Burnt

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Write the balanced combustion reaction:
  2. 2
  3. 31 mole C (12 g) needs 1 mole O₂ (32 g) and gives 1 mole CO₂ (44 g).
  4. 4(i) In air, 1 mole of carbon burns completely to give 1 mole of CO₂ = 44 g.
  5. 5(ii) Only 16 g of dioxygen is available, i.e. 0.5 mole of O₂. It can combine with only 0.5 mole of carbon, so dioxygen is the limiting reactant.
  6. 6
  7. 7(iii) Again only 16 g of dioxygen is available; it is the limiting reactant and can combine with only 0.5 mole of carbon, producing the same 22 g of CO₂.

Final answer

(i) 44 g (ii) 22 g (iii) 22 g of carbon dioxide.

07

NCERT Exercise 1.5 — Mass of Sodium Acetate Required

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A 0.375 M aqueous solution of sodium acetate contains 0.375 moles of sodium acetate in 1000 mL of solution.
  2. 2Number of moles of sodium acetate in 500 mL:
  3. 3
  4. 4Molar mass of sodium acetate = 82.0245 g mol⁻¹ (given).
  5. 5Required mass of sodium acetate:
  6. 6

Final answer

15.38 g of sodium acetate is required.

08

NCERT Exercise 1.6 — Concentration of Nitric Acid in Moles per Litre

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Mass percent of nitric acid in the sample = 69% (given): 100 g of solution contains 69 g of HNO₃ by mass.
  2. 2Molar mass of nitric acid, HNO₃:
  3. 3
  4. 4Number of moles in 69 g of HNO₃:
  5. 5
  6. 6Volume of 100 g of solution using its density:
  7. 7
  8. 8Concentration (molarity) of nitric acid:
  9. 9

Final answer

Concentration of nitric acid = 15.44 mol L⁻¹.

09

NCERT Exercise 1.7 — Copper Obtainable from Copper Sulphate

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 11 mole of CuSO₄ contains 1 mole (i.e. 1 g-atom) of copper.
  2. 2Molar mass of CuSO₄:
  3. 3
  4. 4Thus 159.5 g of CuSO₄ contains 63.5 g of copper.
  5. 5Copper obtainable from 100 g of CuSO₄:
  6. 6

Final answer

39.81 g of copper can be obtained from 100 g of copper sulphate.

10

NCERT Exercise 1.8 — Molecular Formula of an Iron Oxide

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Mass percent of iron = 69.9% and of oxygen = 30.1% (given).
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4Ratio of iron to oxygen: 1.25 : 1.88 = 1 : 1.5 = 2 : 3, so the empirical formula is Fe₂O₃.
  5. 5Empirical formula mass of Fe₂O₃:
  6. 6
  7. 7The factor n relating molecular and empirical formula mass:
  8. 8
  9. 9Since n = 1, the molecular formula equals the empirical formula, Fe₂O₃.

Final answer

Empirical formula = Fe₂O₃, n = 1, so the molecular formula of the oxide is Fe₂O₃.

11

NCERT Exercise 1.9 — Average Atomic Mass of Chlorine

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The average atomic mass is the abundance-weighted mean of the isotopic masses.
  2. 2
  3. 3

Final answer

Average atomic mass of chlorine = 35.45 u ≈ 35.4527 u.

12

NCERT Exercise 1.10 — Moles of Atoms and Molecules in Ethane

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) 1 mole of C₂H₆ contains 2 moles of carbon atoms.
  2. 2
  3. 3(ii) 1 mole of C₂H₆ contains 6 moles of hydrogen atoms.
  4. 4
  5. 5(iii) 1 mole of C₂H₆ contains 6.023 × 10²³ molecules.
  6. 6

Final answer

(i) 6 moles of carbon atoms (ii) 18 moles of hydrogen atoms (iii) 1.807 × 10²⁴ molecules (18.07 × 10²³ molecules).

13

NCERT Exercise 1.11 — Molar Concentration of a Sugar Solution

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Molarity (M) of a solution is the number of moles of solute per litre of solution:
  2. 2
  3. 3Molar mass of sugar C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁:
  4. 4
  5. 5Moles of sugar = 20 g / 342 g mol⁻¹ = 0.0585 mol.
  6. 6

Final answer

Molar concentration of sugar = 0.02925 mol L⁻¹.

14

NCERT Exercise 1.12 — Volume of Methanol Needed for a Solution

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Molar mass of methanol, CH₃OH:
  2. 2
  3. 3Molarity of the stock methanol, since density gives mass per unit volume:
  4. 4
  5. 5Apply the dilution relation M₁V₁ = M₂V₂ (stock solution and solution to be prepared):
  6. 6
  7. 7

Final answer

Volume of methanol required = 25.2 mL (≈ 25.22 mL).

15

NCERT Exercise 1.13 — Atmospheric Pressure in Pascal

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Pressure is force acting per unit area: P = F/A. Taking g = 9.8 m s⁻², the force per unit area due to the air column is (mass per unit area) × g.
  2. 2
  3. 3Convert g to kg and cm² to m²:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6Since 1 N = 1 kg m s⁻² and 1 Pa = 1 N m⁻² = 1 kg m⁻¹ s⁻², the numerical value is already in pascal:
  7. 7

Final answer

Pressure of air at sea level = 1.01 × 10⁵ Pa (1.01332 × 10⁵ Pa).

16

NCERT Exercise 1.14 — SI Unit of Mass and Its Definition

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The SI unit of mass is the kilogram (kg).
  2. 21 kilogram is defined as the mass equal to the mass of the international prototype of kilogram — a platinum-iridium cylinder preserved at the International Bureau of Weights and Measures at Sèvres, France.

Final answer

SI unit of mass = kilogram (kg); 1 kg is the mass of the international prototype kilogram.

17

NCERT Exercise 1.15 — Matching Prefixes with Their Multiples

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Recall each SI prefix and its power of ten: micro = 10⁻⁶, deca = 10, mega = 10⁶, giga = 10⁹, femto = 10⁻¹⁵.
  2. 2Match them one by one: (i) micro ↔ 10⁻⁶, (ii) deca ↔ 10, (iii) mega ↔ 10⁶, (iv) giga ↔ 10⁹, (v) femto ↔ 10⁻¹⁵.

Final answer

(i) micro = 10⁻⁶ (ii) deca = 10 (iii) mega = 10⁶ (iv) giga = 10⁹ (v) femto = 10⁻¹⁵.

18

NCERT Exercise 1.16 — Meaning of Significant Figures

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Significant figures are those meaningful digits that are known with certainty.
  2. 2They indicate the uncertainty in an experiment or a calculated value. For example, if 15.6 mL is the result of an experiment, then 15 is certain while 6 is uncertain, and the total number of significant figures is 3.
  3. 3Hence, significant figures are defined as the total number of digits in a number, including the last digit that represents the uncertainty of the result.

Final answer

Significant figures are the total number of digits in a number including the last digit whose value is uncertain (the first uncertain digit).

19

NCERT Exercise 1.17 — Chloroform Contamination: Per Cent and Molality

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) 1 ppm means 1 part out of 1 million (10⁶) parts.
  2. 2
  3. 3(ii) From the result above, 100 g of the sample contains 1.5 × 10⁻³ g of CHCl₃, i.e. 1000 g of the sample contains 1.5 × 10⁻² g of CHCl₃.
  4. 4Molality = moles of solute per kilogram of solvent:
  5. 5
  6. 6Molar mass of chloroform, CHCl₃:
  7. 7
  8. 8

Final answer

(i) 1.5 × 10⁻³ % by mass (ii) molality = 1.26 × 10⁻⁴ m.

20

NCERT Exercise 1.18 — Expressing Numbers in Scientific Notation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) Move the decimal point four places right: 0.0048 = 4.8 × 10⁻³.
  2. 2(ii) 234,000 = 2.34 × 10⁵.
  3. 3(iii) 8008 = 8.008 × 10³.
  4. 4(iv) 500.0 = 5.000 × 10² (the decimal point is moved two places left).
  5. 5(v) 6.0012 is already between 1 and 10, so 6.0012 = 6.0012 × 10⁰.

Final answer

(i) 4.8 × 10⁻³ (ii) 2.34 × 10⁵ (iii) 8.008 × 10³ (iv) 5.000 × 10² (v) 6.0012 × 10⁰.

21

NCERT Exercise 1.19 — Number of Significant Figures

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) 0.0025: leading zeros are not significant; only 2 and 5 count → 2 significant figures.
  2. 2(ii) 208: all three digits are significant (the embedded zero counts) → 3.
  3. 3(iii) 5005: embedded zeros count → 4.
  4. 4(iv) 126,000: trailing zeros without a decimal point are not significant → 3.
  5. 5(v) 500.0: the decimal point makes the trailing zero significant → 4.
  6. 6(vi) 2.0034: embedded zeros count → 5.

Final answer

(i) 2 (ii) 3 (iii) 4 (iv) 3 (v) 4 (vi) 5 significant figures.

22

NCERT Exercise 1.20 — Rounding to Three Significant Figures

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) 34.216: the fourth significant digit is 2 (< 5), so keep 34.2.
  2. 2(ii) 10.4107: the fourth significant digit is 1, so 10.4.
  3. 3(iii) 0.04597: significant digits are 4, 5, 9; the next digit 7 ≥ 5 rounds 9 up to 10, giving 0.0460.
  4. 4(iv) 2808: the fourth digit is 8; rounding to three figures gives 2810.

Final answer

(i) 34.2 (ii) 10.4 (iii) 0.0460 (iv) 2810.

23

NCERT Exercise 1.21 — Law of Multiple Proportions and Unit Conversions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Fix the mass of dinitrogen at 28 g, then scale the dioxygen masses: the data become 32 g, 64 g, 32 g and 80 g of dioxygen.
  2. 2These masses of dioxygen bear a simple whole-number ratio 2 : 4 : 2 : 5. Hence the data obey the law of multiple proportions.
  3. 3Statement of the law: if two elements combine to form more than one compound, then the masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other element are in the ratio of small whole numbers.
  4. 4(b)(i) Convert 1 km to mm and pm:
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7(b)(ii):
  8. 8
  9. 9
  10. 10(b)(iii): 1 mL = 1 cm³ = 10⁻³ L.
  11. 11

Final answer

(a) Law of multiple proportions. (b)(i) 1 km = 10⁶ mm = 10¹⁵ pm (ii) 1 mg = 10⁻⁶ kg = 10⁶ ng (iii) 1 mL = 10⁻³ L = 10⁻³ dm³.

24

NCERT Exercise 1.22 — Distance Covered by Light in 2 ns

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Time taken = 2.00 ns = 2.00 × 10⁻⁹ s.
  2. 2Speed of light = 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹.
  3. 3Distance = speed × time:
  4. 4
  5. 5

Final answer

Distance covered by light in 2.00 ns = 0.600 m.

25

NCERT Exercise 1.23 — Identifying the Limiting Reagent

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A limiting reagent determines the extent of a reaction: it is the reactant which is consumed first, stopping the reaction and limiting the amount of product formed.
  2. 2The balanced reaction shows 1 atom (or 1 mol) of A reacts with 1 molecule (or 1 mol) of B₂.
  3. 3(i) 200 molecules of B₂ react with 200 atoms of A, leaving 100 atoms of A unused. Hence B₂ is the limiting reagent.
  4. 4(ii) 2 mol of A reacts with only 2 mol of B₂, so 1 mol of B₂ remains unused. Hence A is the limiting reagent.
  5. 5(iii) 100 atoms of A combine with all 100 molecules of B₂; the mixture is stoichiometric, so there is no limiting reagent.
  6. 6(iv) 2.5 mol of B₂ combines with only 2.5 mol of A, leaving 2.5 mol of A. Hence B₂ is the limiting reagent.
  7. 7(v) 2.5 mol of A combines with only 2.5 mol of B₂, leaving 2.5 mol of B₂. Hence A is the limiting reagent.

Final answer

(i) B₂ (ii) A (iii) none (stoichiometric) (iv) B₂ (v) A.

26

NCERT Exercise 1.24 — Mass of Ammonia from Dinitrogen and Dihydrogen

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Balance the chemical equation:
  2. 2
  3. 31 mole (28 g) of dinitrogen reacts with 3 moles (6 g) of dihydrogen to give 2 moles (34 g) of ammonia.
  4. 4Dihydrogen required for 2.00 × 10³ g of N₂:
  5. 5
  6. 6Given dihydrogen = 1.00 × 10³ g, which exceeds 428.6 g, so N₂ is the limiting reagent.
  7. 7Mass of ammonia produced from 2000 g of N₂:
  8. 8
  9. 9(ii) N₂ is the limiting reagent and H₂ is the excess reagent, so H₂ remains unreacted.
  10. 10(iii) Mass of dihydrogen left unreacted:
  11. 11

Final answer

(i) 2.43 × 10³ g of NH₃ (ii) Yes, dihydrogen (H₂) remains (iii) 571.4 g of H₂ unreacted.

27

NCERT Exercise 1.25 — 0.50 mol Na₂CO₃ versus 0.50 M Na₂CO₃

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Molar mass of Na₂CO₃:
  2. 2
  3. 31 mole of Na₂CO₃ means 106 g of Na₂CO₃, so 0.50 mol means:
  4. 4
  5. 5A 0.50 M solution contains 0.50 mol of Na₂CO₃ per litre of solution, i.e. 53 g of Na₂CO₃ dissolved and made up to 1 L.

Final answer

0.50 mol Na₂CO₃ is simply 53 g of the substance; 0.50 M Na₂CO₃ is 53 g dissolved in 1 L of solution (0.50 mol per litre).

28

NCERT Exercise 1.26 — Volumes of Water Vapour Produced

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Write the balanced reaction of dihydrogen with dioxygen (Gay-Lussac's law of gaseous volumes applies):
  2. 2
  3. 3Two volumes of dihydrogen react with one volume of dioxygen to give two volumes of water vapour.
  4. 4Hence ten volumes of dihydrogen react with five volumes of dioxygen to produce ten volumes of water vapour.

Final answer

10 volumes of water vapour would be produced.

29

NCERT Exercise 1.27 — Converting into Basic SI Units

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) Using 1 pm = 10⁻¹² m:
  2. 2
  3. 3(ii) Using 1 pm = 10⁻¹² m:
  4. 4
  5. 5(iii) 25365 mg = 2.5365 × 10¹ g (since 1000 mg = 1 g). Then convert grams to kilograms:
  6. 6

Final answer

(i) 2.87 × 10⁻¹¹ m (ii) 1.515 × 10⁻¹¹ m (iii) 2.5365 × 10⁻² kg.

30

NCERT Exercise 1.28 — Sample with the Largest Number of Atoms

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) 1 g of Au:
  2. 2
  3. 3(ii) 1 g of Na:
  4. 4
  5. 5(iii) 1 g of Li (atomic mass 7):
  6. 6
  7. 7(iv) 1 g of Cl₂ (molar mass 35.5 × 2 = 71 g mol⁻¹) as molecules, remembering each Cl₂ molecule has two Cl atoms:
  8. 8
  9. 9Compare: Li gives 8.6 × 10²² atoms, the largest of the four.

Final answer

1 g of Li(s) has the largest number of atoms (8.6 × 10²²).

31

NCERT Exercise 1.29 — Molarity of Ethanol from Its Mole Fraction

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Mole fraction of C₂H₅OH:
  2. 2
  3. 3Number of moles of water in 1 L of water (density of water = 1 g mL⁻¹, so 1 L = 1000 g):
  4. 4
  5. 5Substitute into the mole-fraction equation:
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8
  9. 9Molarity (based on 1 L of solution):
  10. 10

Final answer

Molarity of the ethanol solution = 2.31 M ≈ 2.314 M.

32

NCERT Exercise 1.30 — Mass of One Carbon-12 Atom

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 11 mole of carbon atoms = 6.022 × 10²³ atoms of carbon and also equals 12 g of carbon.
  2. 2Mass of one atom:
  3. 3

Final answer

Mass of one ¹²C atom = 1.99 × 10⁻²³ g ≈ 1.993 × 10⁻²³ g.

33

NCERT Exercise 1.31 — Significant Figures in Calculated Answers

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) For multiplication and division, the result has as many significant figures as the factor with the fewest. The least precise number is 0.112 (3 significant figures).
  2. 2Hence the answer to (i) should have 3 significant figures.
  3. 3(ii) For 5 × 5.364: here 5 is an exact, counted number, so the precision is governed by 5.364, which has 4 significant figures.
  4. 4Hence the answer to (ii) should have 4 significant figures.
  5. 5(iii) For 0.0125 + 0.7864 + 0.0215: in addition, the result is reported to the least number of decimal places — here each term has four decimal places.
  6. 6The sum 0.8204 therefore has 4 significant figures.

Final answer

(i) 3 (ii) 4 (iii) 4 significant figures.

34

NCERT Exercise 1.32 — Molar Mass of Naturally Occurring Argon

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Molar mass of argon is the abundance-weighted sum of the isotopic molar masses:
  2. 2
  3. 3

Final answer

Molar mass of naturally occurring argon = 39.948 g mol⁻¹ (≈ 39.95 g mol⁻¹).

35

NCERT Exercise 1.33 — Number of Atoms in 52 mol, 52 u and 52 g of Helium

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) 1 mole of Ar contains 6.022 × 10²³ atoms:
  2. 2
  3. 3(ii) 1 atom of He has mass 4 u, so 52 u of He corresponds to:
  4. 4
  5. 5(iii) 4 g of He contains 6.022 × 10²³ atoms:
  6. 6

Final answer

(i) 3.13 × 10²⁵ atoms of Ar (ii) 13 atoms of He (iii) 7.83 × 10²⁴ atoms of He.

36

NCERT Exercise 1.34 — Empirical, Molar and Molecular Formula of a Welding Gas

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) 1 mole (44 g) of CO₂ contains 12 g of carbon, so the carbon in 3.38 g CO₂ is:
  2. 2
  3. 318 g of water contains 2 g of hydrogen, so the hydrogen in 0.690 g of water is:
  4. 4
  5. 5Total mass of the compound = 0.9217 + 0.0767 = 0.9984 g, giving 92.32% C and 7.68% H.
  6. 6Moles of carbon and hydrogen:
  7. 7
  8. 8Ratio C : H = 7.69 : 7.68 ≈ 1 : 1. Hence the empirical formula of the gas is CH.
  9. 9(ii) 10.0 L of the gas at STP weighs 11.6 g. Therefore 22.4 L (1 mole at STP) weighs:
  10. 10
  11. 11(iii) Empirical formula mass of CH = 12 + 1 = 13 g.
  12. 12
  13. 13Molecular formula = (CH)₂ = C₂H₂.

Final answer

(i) Empirical formula = CH (ii) Molar mass ≈ 26 g mol⁻¹ (iii) Molecular formula = C₂H₂.

37

NCERT Exercise 1.35 — Mass of CaCO₃ Reacting with HCl

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A 0.75 M HCl solution has 0.75 mol of HCl per litre. Molar mass of HCl = 1 + 35.5 = 36.5 g mol⁻¹, so 1 L contains:
  2. 2
  3. 3HCl present in 25 mL of solution:
  4. 4
  5. 5From the equation, 2 mol of HCl (2 × 36.5 = 71 g) react with 1 mol of CaCO₃ (100 g).
  6. 6Mass of CaCO₃ reacting with 0.6844 g of HCl:
  7. 7

Final answer

0.96 g of CaCO₃ is required (≈ 0.964 g).

38

NCERT Exercise 1.36 — Grams of HCl Reacting with Manganese Dioxide

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 11 mol of MnO₂ has mass 55 + 2(16) = 87 g, and from the equation it reacts with 4 mol of HCl, i.e. 4 × 36.5 = 146 g of HCl.
  2. 2Therefore, HCl reacting with 5.0 g of MnO₂:
  3. 3

Final answer

8.4 g of HCl react completely with 5.0 g of manganese dioxide.

39

Chapter 2 — Structure of Atom

Structure of Atom builds the quantum picture of matter: from the discovery of electrons, protons and neutrons, through the failure of classical models, to Planck's quantum theory, Bohr's atom, de Broglie's matter waves and the modern quantum numbers. This chapter feeds directly into CBSE, JEE and NEET — the photoelectric equations, E = hν, the Rydberg formula, E_n = −13.6/n² eV and the Rydberg–Bohr wavelength sums appear in almost every paper. Every question below is from the NCERT Class 11 Chemistry textbook (rationalised edition), worked line by line in the board pattern.

Board pattern

Numericals on this chapter are marks magnets — learn the pattern. For wave–particle dualism: write the governing equation first (c = νλ, E = hν, E = hc/λ, λ = h/mv), substitute every constant with its unit, and carry the exponent arithmetic step by step. For Bohr/Rydberg: state E_n = −2.18×10⁻¹⁸ Z²/n² J (or −13.6 Z²/n² eV) before plugging n. Always box the final value with its unit, and for photoelectric problems quote h(ν − ν₀) before the numbers go in.
40

NCERT Exercise 2.1 — Electrons Weighing a Gram; Mass and Charge of a Mole of Electrons

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) Mass of one electron = 9.10939 × 10⁻³¹ kg. The number of electrons weighing 1 g = 10⁻³ kg is (1 × 10⁻³)/(9.10939 × 10⁻³¹).
  2. 2
  3. 3(ii) Mass of one mole of electrons = N_A × (mass of one electron) = (6.022 × 10²³)(9.10939 × 10⁻³¹ kg).
  4. 4
  5. 5Charge on one electron = 1.6022 × 10⁻¹⁹ C, so the charge on one mole of electrons = (1.6022 × 10⁻¹⁹)(6.022 × 10²³).
  6. 6

Final answer

(i) 1.098 × 10²⁷ electrons (ii) mass = 5.48 × 10⁻⁷ kg; charge = 9.65 × 10⁴ C.

41

NCERT Exercise 2.2 — Electrons in Methane; Neutrons in ¹⁴C; Protons in NH₃

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) One CH₄ molecule has 6 electrons of carbon and 4 electrons of hydrogen = 10 electrons. One mole = 6.023 × 10²³ molecules, so electrons = 10 × 6.023 × 10²³.
  2. 2
  3. 3(ii) ¹⁴C has mass number 14 and atomic number 6, so neutrons per atom = 14 − 6 = 8. Atoms in 7 mg = (6.023 × 10²³ × 7 × 10⁻³)/14.
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6(iii) One NH₃ molecule has 7 protons (nitrogen) + 3 protons (hydrogen) = 10 protons. Molecules in 34 mg of NH₃ (M = 17 g mol⁻¹) = (6.023 × 10²³ × 34 × 10⁻³)/17.
  7. 7
  8. 8
  9. 9
  10. 10The numbers and masses depend only on the mole–atom relationships, not on temperature or pressure — so the answers do NOT change with temperature and pressure.

Final answer

(i) 6.023 × 10²⁴ electrons. (ii) 2.4088 × 10²¹ neutrons; 4.035 × 10⁻⁶ kg. (iii) 1.2044 × 10²² protons; 2.0138 × 10⁻⁵ kg. Answers are unchanged by temperature and pressure.

42

NCERT Exercise 2.3 — Neutrons and Protons in Given Nuclei

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For a nucleus AZX: protons = Z (atomic number), neutrons = A − Z (mass number − atomic number).
  2. 2₆¹³C: protons = 6, neutrons = 13 − 6 = 7.
  3. 3₈¹⁶O: protons = 8, neutrons = 16 − 8 = 8.
  4. 4₁₂²⁴Mg: protons = 12, neutrons = 24 − 12 = 12.
  5. 5₂₆⁵⁶Fe: protons = 26, neutrons = 56 − 26 = 30.
  6. 6₃₈⁸⁸Sr: protons = 38, neutrons = 88 − 38 = 50.

Final answer

C: 6 p, 7 n; O: 8 p, 8 n; Mg: 12 p, 12 n; Fe: 26 p, 30 n; Sr: 38 p, 50 n.

43

NCERT Exercise 2.4 — Complete Symbol of the Atom from Z and A

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The complete symbol records the atomic number as the subscript and the mass number as the superscript: AZX.
  2. 2(i) Z = 17 is chlorine and A = 35, so the symbol is ₁₇³⁵Cl.
  3. 3(ii) Z = 92 is uranium and A = 233, so the symbol is ₉₂²³³U.
  4. 4(iii) Z = 4 is beryllium and A = 9, so the symbol is ₄⁹Be.

Final answer

(i) ₁₇³⁵Cl (ii) ₉₂²³³U (iii) ₄⁹Be.

44

NCERT Exercise 2.5 — Frequency and Wavenumber of Yellow Light

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Using c = νλ, the frequency is ν = c/λ, with c = 3 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹ and λ = 580 nm = 580 × 10⁻⁹ m.
  2. 2
  3. 3The wavenumber is the reciprocal of the wavelength: ν̄ = 1/λ.
  4. 4

Final answer

Frequency = 5.17 × 10¹⁴ s⁻¹; wavenumber = 1.72 × 10⁶ m⁻¹.

45

NCERT Exercise 2.6 — Energy of Photons of Given Frequency and Wavelength

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) Energy of a photon: E = hν, with h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s and ν = 3 × 10¹⁵ Hz.
  2. 2
  3. 3(ii) Energy from wavelength: E = hc/λ, with λ = 0.50 Å = 0.50 × 10⁻¹⁰ m and c = 3 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹.
  4. 4

Final answer

(i) 1.99 × 10⁻¹⁸ J (ii) 3.98 × 10⁻¹⁵ J.

46

NCERT Exercise 2.7 — Wavelength, Frequency and Wavenumber from the Period

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Frequency is the reciprocal of the period: ν = 1/T.
  2. 2
  3. 3Wavelength from c = νλ: λ = c/ν.
  4. 4
  5. 5Wavenumber: ν̄ = 1/λ.
  6. 6

Final answer

Frequency = 5 × 10⁹ s⁻¹; wavelength = 6.0 × 10⁻² m; wavenumber = 16.66 m⁻¹.

47

NCERT Exercise 2.8 — Number of Photons Providing 1 J of Energy

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Energy of n photons of wavelength λ: E_n = n × (hc/λ), so n = E_n × λ/(hc).
  2. 2Here E_n = 1 J, λ = 4000 pm = 4000 × 10⁻¹² m, c = 3 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹, h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s.
  3. 3

Final answer

2.012 × 10¹⁶ photons.

48

NCERT Exercise 2.9 — Photon Energy, Kinetic Energy and Photoelectron Velocity

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) Photon energy E = hc/λ = (6.626 × 10⁻³⁴)(3 × 10⁸)/(4 × 10⁻⁷).
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4(ii) Einstein's photoelectric equation: KE = hν − W₀ = (3.10 − 2.13) eV.
  5. 5
  6. 6(iii) From ½mv² = KE with m = 9.10939 × 10⁻³¹ kg:
  7. 7

Final answer

(i) 3.10 eV (ii) 0.97 eV (iii) v = 5.84 × 10⁵ m s⁻¹.

49

NCERT Exercise 2.10 — Ionisation Energy of Sodium

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Ionisation energy per mole: E = N_A hc/λ, with N_A = 6.023 × 10²³ mol⁻¹, h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s, c = 3 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹, λ = 242 × 10⁻⁹ m.
  2. 2
  3. 3

Final answer

494 kJ mol⁻¹.

50

NCERT Exercise 2.11 — Rate of Emission of Quanta by a Bulb

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Power P = 25 W = 25 J s⁻¹. Energy of one photon: E = hc/λ with λ = 0.57 × 10⁻⁶ m.
  2. 2
  3. 3Number of quanta emitted per second = P/E.
  4. 4

Final answer

7.17 × 10¹⁹ quanta per second.

51

NCERT Exercise 2.12 — Threshold Frequency and Work Function of a Metal

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Zero-velocity emission means the radiation just equals the threshold, λ₀ = 6800 Å = 6800 × 10⁻¹⁰ m = 6.8 × 10⁻⁷ m.
  2. 2
  3. 3Work function W₀ = hν₀.
  4. 4

Final answer

Threshold frequency = 4.41 × 10¹⁴ s⁻¹; work function = 2.92 × 10⁻¹⁹ J.

52

NCERT Exercise 2.13 — Wavelength for the n = 4 to n = 2 Transition in Hydrogen

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The n = 4 → n = 2 transition gives a spectral line of the Balmer series. The energy change is:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4The negative sign shows the energy is emitted. The wavelength follows from E = hc/λ:
  5. 5

Final answer

486 nm (emitted light of the Balmer series).

53

NCERT Exercise 2.14 — Ionisation Energy of Hydrogen from n = 5

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Bohr energy: E_n = −(2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸)Z²/n² J, with Z = 1 for hydrogen. Ionisation from n₁ = 5 to n₂ = ∞:
  2. 2
  3. 3Ionisation from the ground state, n₁ = 1 to n₂ = ∞:
  4. 4
  5. 58.72 × 10⁻²⁰ J is far smaller than 2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸ J — the electron in n = 5 is much easier to remove than one in the ground state.

Final answer

8.72 × 10⁻²⁰ J (from n = 5) versus 2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸ J (from n = 1); ionising from n = 5 needs only 1/25 of the ground-state ionisation enthalpy.

54

NCERT Exercise 2.15 — Maximum Number of Emission Lines from n = 6

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1All allowed downward transitions 6→5, 6→4, 6→3, 6→2, 6→1, 5→4, …, 2→1 can occur.
  2. 2Number of spectral lines when the electron in the n-th level drops to the ground state:
  3. 3
  4. 4That is 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15 possible transitions.

Final answer

15 emission lines.

55

NCERT Exercise 2.16 — Energy and Radius of the Fifth Bohr Orbit

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) E_n = E₁/n², so E₅ = −2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸/5².
  2. 2
  3. 3(ii) Bohr radius: r_n = (0.0529 nm) × n², with n = 5.
  4. 4

Final answer

(i) −8.72 × 10⁻²⁰ J (ii) r₅ = 1.3225 nm.

56

NCERT Exercise 2.17 — Longest-Wavelength Transition in the Balmer Series

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For the Balmer series the lower level is n_i = 2. The wavenumber is ν̄ = R_H(1/2² − 1/n_f²) with R_H = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹.
  2. 2Longest wavelength means smallest wavenumber, which arises from the smallest n_f allowed, n_f = 3:
  3. 3
  4. 4

Final answer

1.52 × 10⁶ m⁻¹ (the H-alpha line, 656 nm).

57

NCERT Exercise 2.18 — Energy to Shift the Electron from n = 1 to n = 5

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Convert the ground-state energy to joules: 1 erg = 10⁻⁷ J, so E₁ = −2.18 × 10⁻¹¹ × 10⁻⁷ J = −2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸ J.
  2. 2Energy required to go from n = 1 to n = 5: ΔE = E₅ − E₁.
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5On returning to the ground state the same energy is emitted as light: λ = hc/ΔE.
  6. 6

Final answer

Energy required = 2.09 × 10⁻¹⁸ J; wavelength of the emitted light = 9.5 × 10⁻⁸ m = 95 nm.

58

NCERT Exercise 2.19 — Energy to Remove the Electron Completely from n = 2

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Removing the electron means ionising from n = 2 to n = ∞:
  2. 2
  3. 3The longest wavelength that supplies this energy is λ = hc/ΔE.
  4. 4
  5. 5

Final answer

Energy required = 5.45 × 10⁻¹⁹ J; longest wavelength = 3.65 × 10⁻⁵ cm (364.7 nm).

59

NCERT Exercise 2.20 — Wavelength of an Electron Moving at a Given Velocity

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1de Broglie's equation: λ = h/mv, with m = 9.10939 × 10⁻³¹ kg and v = 2.05 × 10⁷ m s⁻¹.
  2. 2
  3. 3

Final answer

3.55 × 10⁻¹¹ m (about 35.5 pm).

60

NCERT Exercise 2.21 — Wavelength of an Electron from Its Kinetic Energy

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1From KE = ½mv², the velocity is v = √(2 KE/m).
  2. 2
  3. 3Then λ = h/mv.
  4. 4

Final answer

8.96 × 10⁻⁷ m ≈ 896 nm.

61

NCERT Exercise 2.22 — Isoelectronic Species

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Isoelectronic species have the same electron count. Na (Z = 11) loses one electron to give Na⁺ with 10 electrons; Mg (Z = 12) loses two to give Mg²⁺ with 10.
  2. 2K (Z = 19) loses one → K⁺ = 18 electrons; Ca (Z = 20) loses two → Ca²⁺ = 18; S (Z = 16) gains two → S²⁻ = 18; neutral Ar (Z = 18) has 18 electrons.
  3. 3Group (i): Na⁺ and Mg²⁺ both have 10 electrons.
  4. 4Group (ii): K⁺, Ca²⁺, S²⁻ and Ar all have 18 electrons.

Final answer

Na⁺ and Mg²⁺ are isoelectronic (10 electrons); K⁺, Ca²⁺, S²⁻ and Ar are isoelectronic (18 electrons).

62

NCERT Exercise 2.23 — Electronic Configurations, Atomic Numbers and Identity of Elements

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i)(a) H atom is 1s¹; gaining one electron gives H⁻ = 1s².
  2. 2(i)(b) Na atom is 1s²2s²2p⁶3s¹; losing one electron gives Na⁺ = 1s²2s²2p⁶.
  3. 3(i)(c) O atom is 1s²2s²2p⁴; gaining two electrons gives O²⁻ = 1s²2s²2p⁶.
  4. 4(i)(d) F atom is 1s²2s²2p⁵; gaining one electron gives F⁻ = 1s²2s²2p⁶.
  5. 5(ii)(a) 3s¹: complete configuration 1s²2s²2p⁶3s¹ → 2 + 2 + 6 + 1 = 11 electrons, Z = 11.
  6. 6(ii)(b) 2p³: complete configuration 1s²2s²2p³ → 2 + 2 + 3 = 7 electrons, Z = 7.
  7. 7(ii)(c) 3p⁵: complete configuration 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁵ → 2 + 2 + 6 + 2 + 5 = 17 electrons, Z = 17.
  8. 8(iii)(a) [He]2s¹ = 1s²2s¹ → Z = 3, lithium (Li).
  9. 9(iii)(b) [Ne]3s²3p³ → Z = 15, phosphorus (P).
  10. 10(iii)(c) [Ar]4s²3d¹ → Z = 21, scandium (Sc).

Final answer

(i) H⁻ = 1s²; Na⁺ = 1s²2s²2p⁶; O²⁻ = 1s²2s²2p⁶; F⁻ = 1s²2s²2p⁶. (ii) 11, 7, 17. (iii) Li, P, Sc.

63

NCERT Exercise 2.24 — Lowest Value of n That Allows g-Orbitals

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The azimuthal quantum number takes values l = 0 to (n − 1); the g orbital has l = 4.
  2. 2For l = 4 to be allowed, n − 1 ≥ 4, i.e. n ≥ 5.

Final answer

n = 5.

64

NCERT Exercise 2.25 — Quantum Numbers of a 3d Electron

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For a 3d orbital: the principal quantum number n = 3.
  2. 2The d orbital has azimuthal quantum number l = 2.
  3. 3The magnetic quantum number takes the (2l + 1) = 5 values m_l = −2, −1, 0, 1, 2.

Final answer

n = 3, l = 2, m_l = −2, −1, 0, 1, 2.

65

NCERT Exercise 2.26 — Protons and Configuration of the Z = 29 Element

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) In a neutral atom the number of protons equals the number of electrons, so the element has 29 protons (Z = 29, copper).
  2. 2(ii) Filling in Aufbau order, 29 electrons give 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s²3d⁹. But a filled 3d subshell is unusually stable, so one electron transfers from 4s to 3d:
  3. 3Final configuration: 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶3d¹⁰4s¹ (the famous copper anomaly — a full 3d¹⁰ shell with a half-full 4s¹).

Final answer

(i) 29 protons (copper, Z = 29). (ii) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶3d¹⁰4s¹ (special stability of the fully filled 3d subshell).

66

NCERT Exercise 2.27 — Number of Electrons in H₂⁺, H₂ and O₂⁺

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1H₂: each hydrogen contributes 1 electron, so H₂ has 1 + 1 = 2 electrons.
  2. 2H₂⁺ loses one electron (positive charge = loss of an electron): electrons = 2 − 1 = 1.
  3. 3O₂: each oxygen (Z = 8) contributes 8 electrons, so O₂ has 8 + 8 = 16 electrons.
  4. 4O₂⁺ loses one electron: electrons = 16 − 1 = 15.

Final answer

H₂⁺ = 1, H₂ = 2, O₂⁺ = 15 electrons.

67

NCERT Exercise 2.28 — Possible l and m_l for n = 3; Possible Orbitals

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) For n = 3, l takes values 0 to (n − 1) = 0, 1, 2.
  2. 2For each l, m_l runs from −l to +l: l = 0 → m_l = 0; l = 1 → m_l = −1, 0, 1; l = 2 → m_l = −2, −1, 0, 1, 2.
  3. 3(ii) For the 3d orbital l = 2 and there are (2l + 1) = 5 values: m_l = −2, −1, 0, 1, 2.
  4. 4(iii) A p orbital needs l = 1, which requires n ≥ 2, so 1p is not possible but 2p and 2s are possible.
  5. 5An f orbital needs l = 3, which requires n ≥ 4, so 3f is not possible.

Final answer

(i) l = 0, 1, 2 with m_l as listed. (ii) l = 2, m_l = −2, −1, 0, 1, 2. (iii) Only 2s and 2p are possible; 1p and 3f are not.

68

NCERT Exercise 2.29 — Describing Orbitals in s, p, d Notation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The orbital name is written n followed by the letter for l (0→s, 1→p, 2→d, 3→f).
  2. 2(a) n = 1, l = 0 → 1s.
  3. 3(b) n = 3, l = 1 → 3p.
  4. 4(c) n = 4, l = 2 → 4d.
  5. 5(d) n = 4, l = 3 → 4f.

Final answer

(a) 1s (b) 3p (c) 4d (d) 4f.

69

NCERT Exercise 2.30 — Which Sets of Quantum Numbers Are Not Possible

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Not possible: the principal quantum number n must be a positive integer, so n = 0 is not allowed.
  2. 2(b) Possible: n = 1, l = 0, m_l = 0 and m_s = ±1/2 is the valid description of a 1s electron.
  3. 3(c) Not possible: for n = 1, l can only be 0 (values 0 to n − 1), so l = 1 is not allowed.
  4. 4(d) Possible: n = 2, l = 1, m_l = 0, m_s = −1/2 correctly describes a 2p electron.
  5. 5(e) Not possible: for n = 3, l can be only 0, 1, 2 — l = 3 exceeds n − 1.
  6. 6(f) Possible: n = 3, l = 1, m_l = 0, m_s = +1/2 correctly describes a 3p electron.

Final answer

Not possible: (a) n = 0, (c) l = 1 for n = 1, (e) l = 3 for n = 3. Possible: (b), (d), (f).

70

NCERT Exercise 2.31 — Number of Electrons with Given Quantum Numbers

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) A shell with quantum number n can hold at most 2n² electrons; for n = 4 that is 2 × 16 = 32 electrons.
  2. 2Exactly half the electrons of a filled shell have m_s = −1/2, so the number is 32/2 = 16.
  3. 3(b) n = 3, l = 0 is the 3s orbital, which holds a maximum of 2 electrons.

Final answer

(a) 16 electrons (b) 2 electrons.

71

NCERT Exercise 2.32 — Bohr Circumference as an Integral Multiple of the de Broglie Wavelength

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Bohr's quantisation of angular momentum: mvr = n(h/2π), with n = 1, 2, 3, ….
  2. 2de Broglie's equation: λ = h/mv, so that mv = h/λ.
  3. 3Substitute mv = h/λ into the Bohr condition:
  4. 4
  5. 5Since 2πr is the circumference of the orbit, the circumference is exactly n times the de Broglie wavelength — an integral multiple — as required for a standing matter wave.

Final answer

Proved: 2πr = nλ — the orbital circumference is an integral multiple of the electron's de Broglie wavelength.

72

NCERT Exercise 2.33 — Hydrogen Transition Matching the He⁺ Balmer Line

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For a hydrogen-like species the wavenumber is ν̄ = (1/λ) = R Z²(1/n₁² − 1/n₂²), with Z = 2 for helium.
  2. 2For He⁺ with n₁ = 2 and n₂ = 4:
  3. 3
  4. 4The hydrogen transition (Z = 1) must give the same wavenumber: (1/n₁² − 1/n₂²) = 3/4.
  5. 5By inspection, n₁ = 1 and n₂ = 2 give 1 − 1/4 = 3/4, the only matching pair.

Final answer

The n = 2 to n = 1 transition of hydrogen has the same wavelength as the n = 4 → n = 2 transition of He⁺ (ν̄ = 3R/4).

73

NCERT Exercise 2.34 — Energy for He⁺(g) → He²⁺(g) + e⁻

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Energy levels of a hydrogen-like species: E_n = −2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸ Z²/n² J.
  2. 2For hydrogen (Z = 1), ionisation energy = 0 − E₁ = 2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸ J, confirming the given value.
  3. 3For the process He⁺ → He²⁺ + e⁻, Z = 2 and the electron is removed from n = 1:
  4. 4

Final answer

8.72 × 10⁻¹⁸ J (four times the hydrogen ionisation energy, since Z² = 4).

74

NCERT Exercise 2.35 — Number of Carbon Atoms Across a 20 cm Scale

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Convert the length of the scale: 20 cm = 20 × 10⁻² m = 0.2 m.
  2. 2Diameter of one carbon atom = 0.15 nm = 0.15 × 10⁻⁹ m.
  3. 3Number of atoms = length/diameter:
  4. 4

Final answer

1.33 × 10⁹ atoms.

75

NCERT Exercise 2.36 — Radius of a Carbon Atom from an Atomic Row

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Length of the arrangement = 2.4 cm = 2.4 × 10⁻² m.
  2. 2Diameter of one carbon atom = length/number of atoms = (2.4 × 10⁻²)/(2 × 10⁸).
  3. 3
  4. 4Radius = diameter/2:
  5. 5

Final answer

Radius = 6.0 × 10⁻¹¹ m (0.6 Å).

76

NCERT Exercise 2.37 — Radius of a Zinc Atom and Atoms in a 1.6 cm Length

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Radius = diameter/2 = 2.6/2 = 1.3 Å = 1.3 × 10⁻¹⁰ m.
  2. 2
  3. 3(b) Length = 1.6 cm = 1.6 × 10⁻² m; diameter = 2.6 × 10⁻¹⁰ m. Number of atoms = length/diameter.
  4. 4

Final answer

(a) 130 pm (b) 6.15 × 10⁷ atoms.

77

NCERT Exercise 2.38 — Number of Electrons in a Static Charge

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Charge on one electron = 1.6022 × 10⁻¹⁹ C.
  2. 2Number of electrons = total charge/charge on one electron.
  3. 3

Final answer

1560 electrons.

78

NCERT Exercise 2.39 — Electrons on a Millikan Oil Drop

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Charge on the oil drop = 1.282 × 10⁻¹⁸ C; charge on one electron = 1.6022 × 10⁻¹⁹ C.
  2. 2

Final answer

8 electrons.

79

NCERT Exercise 2.40 — Light-Atom Foil in Rutherford's Experiment

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The large-angle scattering of α-particles comes from the strong positive charge concentrated in a heavy nucleus.
  2. 2A light atom carries very little positive charge in its nucleus, so the repulsive force on the positively charged α-particle is weak.
  3. 3Result: far fewer particles are deflected, and the big-angle deflections almost disappear — the scattering pattern is much closer to the straight-through path.

Final answer

Light-atom foil — few α-particles are deflected and large-angle scattering is drastically reduced, because the small nuclear charge exerts little repulsion.

80

NCERT Exercise 2.41 — Acceptable Symbols for Bromine

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The convention is to write Z as the subscript and A as the superscript: AZX.
  2. 2So ₃₅⁷⁹Br is the full symbol, and ⁷⁹Br (mass number shown, atomic number elided) is also acceptable because the element symbol already fixes Z.
  3. 3₇₉³⁵Br would put the atomic number where the mass number belongs, which is incorrect.
  4. 4³⁵Br is not acceptable because the atomic number of an element is fixed while the atomic mass varies with the isotope — citing only a number below the symbol implies Z = 35, which is bromine; but a superscript 35 would be a misleading mass.

Final answer

Z is fixed for an element but A changes with isotope; the subscript/superscript convention AZX allows ₃₅⁷⁹Br and ⁷⁹Br but rejects ₇₉³⁵Br and ³⁵Br.

81

NCERT Exercise 2.42 — Atomic Symbol from Mass Number and Neutron Excess

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Let the number of protons be x. Then the number of neutrons = x + 0.317x = 1.317x.
  2. 2Mass number = protons + neutrons = x + 1.317x = 2.317x = 81.
  3. 3
  4. 4Z = 35 (bromine) and A = 81, so the symbol is ₃₅⁸¹Br.

Final answer

₃₅⁸¹Br.

82

NCERT Exercise 2.43 — Symbol of an Ion with One Unit Negative Charge

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Let x be the number of electrons in the ion. Since it is a 1− anion, it has one electron more than protons, so protons = x − 1.
  2. 2Neutrons = x + 0.111x = 1.111x.
  3. 3Mass number = protons + neutrons = (x − 1) + 1.111x = 2.111x − 1 = 37.
  4. 4
  5. 5Protons = x − 1 = 17, which is chlorine (Z = 17), with mass number 37.

Final answer

₃₇¹⁷Cl⁻ (the chloride-37 ion).

83

NCERT Exercise 2.44 — Symbol of an Ion with Three Units Positive Charge

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Let x be the number of electrons in the ion A³⁺. The ion has lost 3 electrons, so the neutral atom has x + 3 electrons = x + 3 protons.
  2. 2Neutrons = x + 0.304x = 1.304x.
  3. 3Mass number = protons + neutrons = (x + 3) + 1.304x = 2.304x + 3 = 56.
  4. 4
  5. 5Protons = x + 3 = 26, which is iron (Z = 26), with mass number 56.

Final answer

₅₆²⁶Fe³⁺.

84

NCERT Exercise 2.45 — Radiations in Increasing Order of Frequency

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Recall the approximate frequency ranges: FM radio ~10⁸ Hz, microwave oven ~10¹⁰ Hz, visible (amber) light ~5 × 10¹⁴ Hz, X-rays ~10¹⁸ Hz, cosmic rays ~10²⁰ Hz and above.
  2. 2Increasing frequency: FM radio < microwave oven < amber light < X-rays < cosmic rays.
  3. 3Wavelength is the reverse of this order: cosmic rays < X-rays < microwave oven < amber light < FM radio.

Final answer

Increasing frequency: FM radio < microwave oven < amber light < X-rays < cosmic rays.

85

NCERT Exercise 2.46 — Power of a Nitrogen Laser

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Total energy emitted = N × (energy per photon) = N hc/λ.
  2. 2With N = 5.6 × 10²⁴, h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s, c = 3 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹, λ = 337.1 × 10⁻⁹ m:
  3. 3
  4. 4

Final answer

Power = 3.33 × 10⁶ J (equivalent to 3.33 × 10⁶ W for this energy emitted per second).

86

NCERT Exercise 2.47 — Neon Sign: Frequency, Distance, Quantum Energy and Quanta

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) ν = c/λ with λ = 616 × 10⁻⁹ m.
  2. 2
  3. 3(b) Distance = speed × time = (3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹)(30 s).
  4. 4
  5. 5(c) Energy of one quantum E = hν = (6.626 × 10⁻³⁴)(4.87 × 10¹⁴).
  6. 6
  7. 7(d) Number of quanta in 2 J of energy = 2/E.
  8. 8

Final answer

(a) 4.87 × 10¹⁴ s⁻¹ (b) 9.0 × 10⁹ m (c) 3.23 × 10⁻¹⁹ J (d) 6.2 × 10¹⁸ quanta.

87

NCERT Exercise 2.48 — Number of Photons Received by a Detector

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Energy of one photon: E = hc/λ with λ = 600 × 10⁻⁹ m.
  2. 2
  3. 3Number of photons = total energy/energy per photon.
  4. 4

Final answer

About 9.5 (≈ 10) photons.

88

NCERT Exercise 2.49 — Energy of a Pulsed Radiation Source

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Frequency of the radiation: ν = 1/T = 1/(2 × 10⁻⁹ s).
  2. 2
  3. 3Energy of the source: E = N h ν with N = 2.5 × 10¹⁵.
  4. 4

Final answer

8.28 × 10⁻¹⁰ J.

89

NCERT Exercise 2.50 — Sodium D-Line Frequencies and Excited-State Energy Difference

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For λ₁ = 589 nm: ν₁ = c/λ₁.
  2. 2
  3. 3For λ₂ = 589.6 nm: ν₂ = c/λ₂.
  4. 4
  5. 5Energy difference between the two excited states: ΔE = h(ν₁ − ν₂).
  6. 6

Final answer

ν₁ = 5.093 × 10¹⁴ s⁻¹; ν₂ = 5.088 × 10¹⁴ s⁻¹; ΔE = 3.31 × 10⁻²² J.

90

NCERT Exercise 2.51 — Caesium: Threshold Wavelength, Threshold Frequency and Photoelectron

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) From W₀ = hc/λ₀, the threshold wavelength is λ₀ = hc/W₀, with W₀ = 1.9 × 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ J.
  2. 2
  3. 3(b) Threshold frequency ν₀ = W₀/h.
  4. 4
  5. 5(c) Kinetic energy at λ = 500 nm: KE = hc(1/λ − 1/λ₀).
  6. 6
  7. 7Velocity from KE = ½mv² with m = 9.10939 × 10⁻³¹ kg:
  8. 8

Final answer

(a) λ₀ = 653 nm (b) ν₀ = 4.593 × 10¹⁴ s⁻¹ (c) KE = 9.31 × 10⁻²⁰ J; v = 4.52 × 10⁵ m s⁻¹.

91

NCERT Exercise 2.52 — Sodium Photoelectric Data: Threshold Wavelength and Planck's Constant

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Kinetic energy of the ejected electron: h(ν − ν₀) = ½mv². In terms of wavelengths, hc(1/λ − 1/λ₀) = ½mv².
  2. 2Convert velocities: 2.55 × 10³ m s⁻¹, 4.35 × 10³ m s⁻¹, 5.35 × 10³ m s⁻¹. Write the relations for λ = 400 nm and λ = 500 nm and divide:
  3. 3
  4. 4Simplify: 5(λ₀ − 400) = 4.40177 × 4(λ₀ − 500).
  5. 5
  6. 6(a) Threshold wavelength λ₀ ≈ 540 nm.
  7. 7(b) The tabulated velocities are not consistent — substituting them into hc(1/λ − 1/λ₀) = ½mv² does not reproduce Planck's constant (the data appear to be mis-scaled). For this reason Planck's constant cannot be reliably extracted from the stated figures.

Final answer

(a) λ₀ ≈ 540 nm. (b) Not computable — the supplied velocities are mutually inconsistent and do not yield Planck's constant.

92

NCERT Exercise 2.53 — Work Function of Silver from the Stopping Potential

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Conservation of energy: E = W₀ + KE, so W₀ = E − KE. The stopping voltage gives KE = e × 0.35 V = 0.35 eV.
  2. 2Energy of the incident photon: E = hc/λ with λ = 256.7 × 10⁻⁹ m.
  3. 3
  4. 4Work function: W₀ = 4.83 − 0.35.
  5. 5

Final answer

Work function of silver = 4.48 eV.

93

NCERT Exercise 2.54 — Binding Energy of an Inner Electron

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Energy of the incident photon: E = hc/λ with λ = 150 × 10⁻¹² m.
  2. 2
  3. 3Kinetic energy of the ejected electron: KE = ½m_e v².
  4. 4
  5. 5Binding energy = E − KE.
  6. 6
  7. 7

Final answer

Binding energy ≈ 7.6 × 10³ eV (12.2 × 10⁻¹⁶ J).

94

NCERT Exercise 2.55 — Value of n for a Paschen Transition at 1285 nm

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The observed frequency is ν = c/λ = (3 × 10⁸)/(1285 × 10⁻⁹).
  2. 2
  3. 3Set the given formula equal to this frequency:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7n = 5 (Paschen series), and a wavelength of 1285 nm places the transition in the infrared region of the spectrum.

Final answer

n = 5; the transition lies in the infra-red region.

95

NCERT Exercise 2.56 — Series and Wavelength of an Emission Transition from Bohr Radii

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Bohr radius for hydrogen: r = (52.9 n²/Z) pm with Z = 1, so n² = r/52.9 pm.
  2. 2For r₁ = 1.3225 nm = 1322.5 pm: n₁² = 1322.5/52.9 = 25, so n₁ = 5.
  3. 3For r₂ = 211.6 pm: n₂² = 211.6/52.9 = 4, so n₂ = 2.
  4. 4The transition is 5 → 2, which belongs to the Balmer series. Its wavenumber:
  5. 5
  6. 6Wavelength λ = 1/ν̄.
  7. 7

Final answer

Transition is 5 → 2; Balmer series; λ = 434 nm in the visible region.

96

NCERT Exercise 2.57 — de Broglie Wavelength of the Electron-Microscope Electron

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1de Broglie's equation: λ = h/mv, with m = 9.10939 × 10⁻³¹ kg and v = 1.6 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹.
  2. 2
  3. 3

Final answer

455 pm.

97

NCERT Exercise 2.58 — Velocity of a Neutron in Neutron Diffraction

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1From λ = h/mv, the velocity is v = h/(mλ). For a neutron m = 1.67493 × 10⁻²⁷ kg and λ = 800 × 10⁻¹² m.
  2. 2

Final answer

v = 494 m s⁻¹.

98

NCERT Exercise 2.59 — de Broglie Wavelength in Bohr's First Orbit

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1de Broglie's equation: λ = h/mv with m = 9.10939 × 10⁻³¹ kg and v = 2.19 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹.
  2. 2
  3. 3

Final answer

332 pm.

99

NCERT Exercise 2.60 — Wavelength of a Hockey Ball

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For a macroscopic object, λ = h/mv with m = 0.1 kg and v = 4.37 × 10⁵ m s⁻¹.
  2. 2
  3. 3The wavelength is fantastically small — unobservable, which is why everyday objects show no measurable wave behaviour.

Final answer

1.52 × 10⁻³⁸ m.

100

NCERT Exercise 2.61 — Uncertainty in the Momentum of an Electron

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Heisenberg's uncertainty principle: Δx × Δp = h/4π, so Δp = h/(4πΔx).
  2. 2Δx = 0.002 nm = 2 × 10⁻¹² m, and taking π ≈ 3.14:
  3. 3
  4. 4The stated actual momentum: p = h/(4π × 0.05 nm).
  5. 5
  6. 6Since the actual momentum (≈1.06 × 10⁻²⁴) is smaller than the uncertainty Δp (≈2.6 × 10⁻²³), the value cannot be meaningfully defined — you cannot pin it down to a precision finer than the uncertainty permits.

Final answer

Δp = 2.637 × 10⁻²³ kg m s⁻¹. The stated momentum 1.06 × 10⁻²⁴ kg m s⁻¹ is smaller than the uncertainty, so the value cannot be defined.

101

NCERT Exercise 2.62 — Increasing Energies of Six Electrons from Quantum Numbers

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Identify the orbitals: (1) n=4, l=2 → 4d; (2) n=3, l=2 → 3d; (3) n=4, l=1 → 4p; (4) 3d; (5) n=3, l=1 → 3p; (6) n=4, l=1 → 4p.
  2. 2Orbitals of lower (n + l) have lower energy; for equal (n + l), the smaller n has the lower energy.
  3. 33p has (3+1) = 4; 3d has (3+2) = 5; 4p has (4+1) = 5; 4d has (4+2) = 6. Among 3d and 4p (both 5), the lower n wins, so 3d < 4p.
  4. 4Increasing energy order: 3p < 3d < 4p < 4d.
  5. 5So: electron 5 < electron 2 = electron 4 < electron 3 = electron 6 < electron 1.

Final answer

5 (3p) < 2 = 4 (3d) < 3 = 6 (4p) < 1 (4d). Pairs (2,4) and (3,6) have equal energies.

102

NCERT Exercise 2.63 — Lowest Effective Nuclear Charge in Bromine

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The effective nuclear charge felt by an electron falls as its orbital sits farther from the nucleus, because inner electrons shield it.
  2. 2The 4p orbital is the outermost and farthest of the three p-orbitals from the bromine nucleus (Z = 35).
  3. 3The 4p electrons are shielded by the 2p and 3p electrons and all inner s/d electrons, so the 4p electrons experience the lowest effective nuclear charge.

Final answer

The 5 electrons in the 4p orbital experience the lowest effective nuclear charge (being farthest from the nucleus and most heavily shielded).

103

NCERT Exercise 2.64 — Larger Effective Nuclear Charge in Orbital Pairs

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Effective nuclear charge is larger for the orbital closer to the nucleus (less shielded, stronger pull).
  2. 2(i) 2s is closer to the nucleus than 3s, so 2s experiences the larger effective nuclear charge.
  3. 3(ii) 4d lies closer to the nucleus than 4f, so 4d experiences the larger effective nuclear charge.
  4. 4(iii) 3p is closer to the nucleus than 3d (same shell, but p penetrates more and sits nearer), so 3p experiences the larger effective nuclear charge.

Final answer

(i) 2s (ii) 4d (iii) 3p.

104

NCERT Exercise 2.65 — Effective Nuclear Charge on the 3p Electrons of Al and Si

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Effective nuclear charge scales with the total nuclear charge for electrons in similar orbitals.
  2. 2Si has 14 protons (Z = 14) while Al has 13 protons (Z = 13).
  3. 3The 3p electrons of Si therefore experience the larger effective nuclear charge (+14 against +13).

Final answer

The 3p electrons of silicon (Si, Z = 14) experience a greater effective nuclear charge than those of aluminium (Al, Z = 13).

105

NCERT Exercise 2.66 — Number of Unpaired Electrons in P, Si, Cr, Fe and Kr

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) P (Z = 15): 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p³. The three 3p electrons occupy three different p-orbitals singly → 3 unpaired electrons.
  2. 2(b) Si (Z = 14): 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p². Two 3p electrons in different orbitals → 2 unpaired electrons.
  3. 3(c) Cr (Z = 24): 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶3d⁵4s¹ (half-filled 3d shell is specially stable). The 3d⁵ electrons are all unpaired and 4s¹ adds one more → 6 unpaired electrons.
  4. 4(d) Fe (Z = 26): 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶3d⁶4s². The 3d⁶ shell has 4 unpaired electrons → 4 unpaired electrons.
  5. 5(e) Kr (Z = 36): 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶3d¹⁰4s²4p⁶. All shells are fully filled → 0 unpaired electrons.

Final answer

(a) P = 3 (b) Si = 2 (c) Cr = 6 (d) Fe = 4 (e) Kr = 0.

106

NCERT Exercise 2.67 — Subshells of n = 4 and Electrons with m_s = −1/2

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) For a given n, l runs from 0 to (n − 1). For n = 4, l = 0, 1, 2, 3 — that is four subshells: s, p, d, f.
  2. 2(b) Number of orbitals in the n-th shell = n². For n = 4 there are 4² = 16 orbitals.
  3. 3Each filled orbital contributes exactly one electron with m_s = −1/2, so the number of electrons with m_s = −1/2 is 16.

Final answer

(a) 4 subshells (4s, 4p, 4d, 4f) (b) 16 electrons.

107

Chapter 3 — Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

The periodic table arranges the elements by recurring chemical properties and explains why those properties change systematically. This chapter traces the shift from Mendeleev's atomic-mass law to the modern atomic-number law, uses electron configurations to locate elements in periods, groups and blocks, and develops the periodic trends in radius, ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy, electronegativity and metallic character. The 40 NCERT exercises below combine conceptual explanations, data interpretation, position-of-element problems and worked numerical reasoning.

Board pattern

For every trend question, write the direction first and then its cause: atomic size decreases across a period because effective nuclear charge increases, but it increases down a group because shell number and shielding increase. Use electron configurations whenever an ionization-enthalpy exception appears, such as Be versus B or N versus O. For isoelectronic species, compare electron count and then nuclear charge. Before comparing ionization or electron-gain enthalpies, identify the element from the size of any large enthalpy jump and state whether the bonding is ionic or covalent.
  • \text{Ex 3.20} ~ \text{— Relative electron gain enthalpies

The exercises are grouped as follows: development and location of elements (3.1–3.7), group properties, atomic and ionic radii and isoelectronic species (3.8–3.12), ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy, electronegativity and radius changes (3.13–3.24), isotopes, metals, non-metals and group reactivity (3.25–3.28), and block configurations, enthalpy-based identification, compound formulae and final trend questions (3.29–3.40).

108

NCERT Exercise 3.1 — Basic Theme of the Periodic Table

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The modern periodic law arranges elements in order of increasing atomic number, not atomic mass.
  2. 2A period is a horizontal row with the same highest principal quantum number for the valence shell.
  3. 3Elements in the same group have a similar valence-shell pattern, so they show related chemical behaviour and often comparable physical properties.
  4. 4This arrangement therefore makes the study of elements and their compounds systematic rather than a collection of isolated facts.

Final answer

The basic theme is the classification of elements into periods and groups according to recurring physical and chemical properties.

109

NCERT Exercise 3.2 — Mendeleev's Use of Atomic Weight and Its Exceptions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Mendeleev's periodic law treated physical and chemical properties as periodic functions of atomic weight, so he arranged known elements broadly in increasing atomic weight.
  2. 2A strict atomic-weight order produced chemical inconsistencies, so Mendeleev placed some pairs according to strongly related properties rather than weight.
  3. 3For example, modern standard atomic weights are approximately 127.60 for tellurium and 126.90 for iodine, yet Mendeleev placed Te before I because iodine closely resembles F, Cl and Br.
  4. 4His arrangement was therefore a useful empirical rule, but the exceptional placements showed that atomic weight alone was not the fundamental organizing quantity.

Final answer

Mendeleev used increasing atomic weight, but he departed from strict atomic-weight order when a more chemically coherent family order was required.

110

NCERT Exercise 3.3 — Mendeleev's Law and the Modern Periodic Law

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Mendeleev's law correlates an element's physical and chemical properties with its atomic weight.
  2. 2The modern periodic law correlates those same properties with atomic number, which is the number of protons and does not depend on isotope mass.
  3. 3Atomic number gives a unique, continuous order for all elements and explains the recurring electronic structures that produce the periodic patterns.

Final answer

Mendeleev used atomic weight, whereas the modern periodic law uses the more fundamental and unambiguous atomic number.

111

NCERT Exercise 3.4 — Quantum-Number Basis of the Sixth Period

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A period is identified by the principal quantum number n of the newly starting valence shell; for the sixth period, n = 6.
  2. 2According to the Aufbau order, the subshells filled during this period are 6s, 4f, 5d and 6p in that energy order.
  3. 3Count the orbitals in these subshells:
  4. 4
  5. 5Each orbital can contain two electrons of opposite spin under the Pauli exclusion principle:
  6. 6
  7. 7Each successive atomic number adds one electron, so a capacity of 32 electrons corresponds to 32 elements in the period.

Final answer

The sixth period has the theoretical capacity for 32 elements because its 16 orbitals can accommodate 32 electrons.

112

NCERT Exercise 3.5 — Position of the Element with Z = 114

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The seventh period contains the elements from francium, Z = 87, to oganesson, Z = 118, so Z = 114 lies in period 7.
  2. 2The p-block of period 7 starts with nihonium, Z = 113, corresponding to group 13; the next element, Z = 114, therefore belongs to group 14.
  3. 3Its distinguishing outer-shell pattern is 7s²7p⁴, which supplies four valence electrons when the filled 7s pair is included.

Final answer

The element with Z = 114 is flerovium in period 7 and group 14.

113

NCERT Exercise 3.6 — Atomic Number in Period 3 and Group 17

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The third period runs from sodium, Z = 11, to argon, Z = 18.
  2. 2Argon is the group 18 member at the end of the period, so the preceding group 17 member is one atomic number lower.
  3. 3The period-3 group-17 element is chlorine.
  4. 4

Final answer

The element is chlorine with atomic number 17.

114

NCERT Exercise 3.7 — Elements Named by Berkeley and Seaborg Groups

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The actinide elements associated with the Lawrence Berkeley Laboratory are lawrencium, with Z = 103, and berkelium, with Z = 97.
  2. 2Seaborg's research group proposed seaborgium for element 106, so seaborgium has Z = 106.
  3. 3These names also reflect the close historical connection of the Berkeley and Seaborg teams with transuranium-element research.

Final answer

(i) Lawrencium (Lr), Z = 103, and berkelium (Bk), Z = 97; (ii) seaborgium (Sg), Z = 106.

115

NCERT Exercise 3.8 — Similar Properties within a Group

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Elements in the same group generally possess the same outer-shell electron configuration or the same number of valence electrons.
  2. 2Their atoms therefore form bonds and undergo reactions in similar ways; for example, alkali metals readily lose one electron and halogens readily gain one.
  3. 3Comparable valence-electron interactions also produce related physical properties such as similar crystal structures and melting behaviour within many main-group families.

Final answer

Elements in a group have similar valence-shell electron configurations, so they form bonds and exhibit related physical and chemical properties.

116

NCERT Exercise 3.9 — Atomic Radius and Ionic Radius

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Atomic radius is an operational estimate of atomic size. For a metal it is the metallic radius, commonly half the internuclear distance between neighbouring atoms in the metal lattice.
  2. 2The exercise uses a 256 pm separation between neighbouring copper atoms as its illustrative metallic-lattice value:
  3. 3
  4. 4For a non-metal, covalent radius is half the internuclear distance in a homonuclear single bond. The exercise uses the 198 pm Cl–Cl distance:
  5. 5
  6. 6Ionic radius is the effective radius of a cation or anion, inferred from interionic distances in an ionic solid with a stated radius convention.
  7. 7The exercise's illustrative values compare Na⁺ at 95 pm with Na at 186 pm and F⁻ at 136 pm with F at 64 pm, illustrating contraction of a cation and expansion of an anion.

Final answer

Atomic radius measures an atom through metallic or covalent bond distances, while ionic radius measures a cation or anion in an ionic lattice; the exercise's examples give Cu = 128 pm, Cl = 99 pm, Na⁺ = 95 pm, Na = 186 pm, F⁻ = 136 pm and F = 64 pm.

117

NCERT Exercise 3.10 — Variation of Atomic Radius

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Across a period, the general trend is a decrease in atomic radius from left to right.
  2. 2In the same period, electrons enter the same valence shell while nuclear charge increases, so effective nuclear charge rises and pulls the electrons inward more strongly.
  3. 3Down a group, the general trend is an increase in atomic radius from top to bottom.
  4. 4The principal quantum number increases and additional inner shells shield the valence electrons, placing the outer electrons farther from the nucleus.

Final answer

Atomic radius generally decreases across a period because effective nuclear charge increases, and it increases down a group because shell number and shielding increase.

118

NCERT Exercise 3.11 — Isoelectronic Species and Examples

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Isoelectronic species contain the same number of electrons. Calculate the electron count by subtracting positive charge or adding gained electrons:
  2. 2
  3. 3(i) F⁻ has 9 + 1 = 10 electrons; Ne is isoelectronic with it.
  4. 4(ii) Ar has 18 electrons; Cl⁻ is isoelectronic with it.
  5. 5(iii) Mg²⁺ has 12 − 2 = 10 electrons; F⁻ is isoelectronic with it.
  6. 6(iv) Rb⁺ has 37 − 1 = 36 electrons; Br⁻ is isoelectronic with it.

Final answer

Isoelectronic species have equal electron counts: examples are Ne for F⁻, Cl⁻ for Ar, F⁻ for Mg²⁺ and Br⁻ for Rb⁺.

119

NCERT Exercise 3.12 — Common Feature and Size Order of Ten-Electron Ions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Count electrons for each ion: N³⁻ has 7 + 3 = 10, O²⁻ has 8 + 2 = 10, F⁻ has 9 + 1 = 10, Na⁺ has 11 − 1 = 10, Mg²⁺ has 12 − 2 = 10 and Al³⁺ has 13 − 3 = 10.
  2. 2All six species are therefore isoelectronic.
  3. 3For species with the same electron count, the ion with the smaller nuclear charge has weaker attraction for the electrons and is larger.
  4. 4The nuclear charges increase in the order N, O, F, Na, Mg, Al, so their ionic radii increase in the reverse order:
  5. 5

Final answer

All six ions are isoelectronic with 10 electrons, and their radii increase in the order Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F⁻ < O²⁻ < N³⁻.

120

NCERT Exercise 3.13 — Size Change on Cation and Anion Formation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Formation of a cation removes one or more electrons while nuclear charge remains unchanged.
  2. 2The remaining electrons experience a greater effective nuclear charge per electron, electron–electron repulsion decreases and the electron cloud contracts; hence cation radius is smaller.
  3. 3Formation of an anion adds one or more electrons without changing nuclear charge.
  4. 4The added electron increases electron–electron repulsion and lowers the effective attraction per outer electron, so the electron cloud expands; hence anion radius is larger.

Final answer

A cation contracts because electron loss raises effective nuclear attraction, whereas an anion expands because electron gain increases repulsion and reduces attraction per electron.

121

NCERT Exercise 3.14 — Isolated Gaseous Atom and Ground State

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1'Isolated gaseous atom' places the atom in the gas phase, where atoms are widely separated and intermolecular forces are negligible compared with those in liquids and solids.
  2. 2The term 'ground state' selects the electronic arrangement of lowest energy, so the starting atomic configuration is clearly specified.
  3. 3Without these conditions, the measured enthalpy would also include interactions with neighbours or excitation to another state, making values difficult to compare.
  4. 4For ionization enthalpy, the energy change is measured from the isolated ground-state atom to a gaseous ion plus an electron at very large separation; electron gain enthalpy uses the analogous reverse process with an incoming electron.

Final answer

The terms specify a minimum-interaction gaseous atom in its lowest-energy state, allowing enthalpy changes to represent atomic energetics and be compared consistently.

122

NCERT Exercise 3.15 — Ionization Enthalpy of Atomic Hydrogen

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Ionization takes the electron from the bound ground state to a zero-energy state at infinite separation, so the required energy is the magnitude of the given negative energy.
  2. 2
  3. 3One mole contains 6.022 × 10²³ atoms, so multiply the energy per atom by Avogadro's number:
  4. 4
  5. 5

Final answer

The ionization enthalpy of atomic hydrogen is 1.31 × 10⁶ J mol⁻¹.

123

NCERT Exercise 3.16 — Exceptions in Second-Period Ionization Enthalpies

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For Be the configuration is 1s²2s², while for B it is 1s²2s²2p¹.
  2. 2A 2s electron is closer to the nucleus and more penetrating than a 2p electron. In addition, Be has a filled 2s subshell, so its first electron is more tightly held than the first 2p electron of B.
  3. 3For N, the three 2p electrons occupy separate 2p orbitals with parallel spins. In O, the fourth 2p electron must pair with one of them, increasing repulsion; removing this paired electron therefore needs less energy than removing an unpaired 2p electron from N.
  4. 4From O to F, nuclear charge increases while the added electron remains in the compact 2p shell. The increase in effective nuclear attraction outweighs the added electron–electron repulsion, so F has the higher first ionization enthalpy.

Final answer

Be's 2s electron is more tightly bound than B's 2p electron, while O's paired 2p electron is easier to remove than N's unpaired electron and F's increased effective nuclear charge binds its 2p electron more strongly.

124

NCERT Exercise 3.17 — Successive Ionization Enthalpies of Sodium and Magnesium

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Neutral Na has the outer configuration 3s¹, whereas Mg has 3s²; Mg is smaller and has a higher effective nuclear charge, so removing an electron initially requires more energy.
  2. 2Therefore, the first ionization enthalpy follows ΔᵢH₁(Na) < ΔᵢH₁(Mg).
  3. 3After the first ionization, Na⁺ has the stable neon configuration 1s²2s²2p⁶, so its second ionization removes a core electron.
  4. 4Mg⁺ retains the valence configuration 3s¹, so its second ionization removes a relatively weakly held 3s electron rather than a core electron.
  5. 5The much greater energy needed to remove the second electron from Na⁺ reverses the first-ionization order.

Final answer

Na has the lower first ionization enthalpy because Mg binds 3s electrons more strongly, but Na⁺ has the higher second ionization enthalpy because its second electron is removed from a stable noble-gas core.

125

NCERT Exercise 3.18 — Down-Group Decrease in Ionization Enthalpy

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The principal quantum number increases down a group, placing the valence electrons in an outer shell that is farther from the nucleus and therefore larger in atomic radius.
  2. 2The number of inner-shell electrons also increases, and these core electrons shield the valence electrons from the nuclear charge more effectively.
  3. 3Although nuclear charge increases as atomic number rises, the combined increase in distance and shielding dominates for the outer electron in the main-group trend.
  4. 4The valence electron is consequently less strongly attracted and requires less energy for removal.

Final answer

Increasing shell number, increasing atomic size and stronger shielding by inner-shell electrons cause the down-group decrease in ionization enthalpy.

126

NCERT Exercise 3.19 — Irregular First Ionization Enthalpies in Group 13

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The listed group-13 values are the exercise's tabulated first ionization enthalpies, all in kJ mol⁻¹.
  2. 2From B to Al, the expected decrease is very large because size and shielding increase when the new 3s valence shell begins.
  3. 3From Al to Ga, the value rises slightly from 577 to 579 kJ mol⁻¹ because the inserted 3d electrons shield poorly, so the Ga valence electron experiences greater effective nuclear charge than a simple size trend predicts.
  4. 4From Ga to In, the value falls from 579 to 558 kJ mol⁻¹ as the larger 5s valence shell is less strongly held, consistent with the normal trend.
  5. 5From In to Tl, it rises from 558 to 589 kJ mol⁻¹ because poor shielding by inserted 4f and 5d electrons, together with lanthanide contraction, keeps the Tl valence electron relatively strongly bound.

Final answer

The small Al-to-Ga and In-to-Tl increases arise from poor shielding by inserted d and f electrons, whereas the B-to-Al and Ga-to-In decreases follow the normal size-and-shielding trend.

127

NCERT Exercise 3.20 — Relative Electron Gain Enthalpies

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) O and F are in the same period. F has a smaller radius and a greater effective nuclear charge, so it attracts the incoming electron more strongly and also needs only one electron to complete a valence octet.
  2. 2The compact 2p shell of F causes some repulsion, but the increase in nuclear attraction dominates; consequently F has the more negative electron gain enthalpy.
  3. 3(ii) F and Cl are in the same group. Cl is larger, and its incoming electron enters the less compact n = 3 shell, where electron–electron repulsion is lower.
  4. 4The repulsion outweighs the benefit of F's smaller size, producing the familiar exception that Cl has a more negative electron gain enthalpy than F.

Final answer

F has the more negative electron gain enthalpy than O, while Cl has the more negative electron gain enthalpy than F.

128

NCERT Exercise 3.21 — Sign of Oxygen's Second Electron Gain Enthalpy

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Adding the first electron to gaseous oxygen forms O⁻ with a filled 2p⁵ subshell and releases energy, so the first electron gain enthalpy is negative.
  2. 2
  3. 3The small O⁻ ion has concentrated negative charge and strongly repels a second incoming electron.
  4. 4The electron also must enter the compact 2p shell and pair with an electron, creating additional repulsion even though an octet is completed.
  5. 5Energy must therefore be supplied for the second process:
  6. 6

Final answer

The second electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is positive because strong repulsion in the small O⁻ ion makes addition of a second electron endothermic.

129

NCERT Exercise 3.22 — Electron Gain Enthalpy versus Electronegativity

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Electron gain enthalpy is an absolute molar enthalpy change for adding an electron to an isolated gaseous atom in a specified state.
  2. 2Electronegativity instead describes an atom's ability to attract a shared electron pair when that atom is already bonded in a chemical compound.
  3. 3Electron gain enthalpy is a measurable thermochemical quantity, whereas electronegativity is an assigned comparative scale that depends on the bonded environment.

Final answer

Electron gain enthalpy is the enthalpy change for electron addition to an isolated gaseous atom, while electronegativity is the ability of an atom in a compound to attract a shared electron pair.

130

NCERT Exercise 3.23 — Nitrogen Electronegativity in Different Compounds

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Electronegativity is not an isolated-atom thermochemical constant; it describes the attraction of an atom for bonding electrons in a molecular environment.
  2. 2Changing the bonded partner and oxidation environment can change the charge distribution on nitrogen and hence its effective electronegativity.
  3. 3Therefore, assigning the same effective value to nitrogen in every compound ignores the chemical context of the bond.

Final answer

The statement is incorrect because the effective electronegativity of nitrogen depends on its bonded environment and can differ between compounds.

131

NCERT Exercise 3.24 — Radius Change on Electron Gain or Loss

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) On gaining an electron, proton number and nuclear charge stay constant while electron number rises.
  2. 2The added electron increases electron–electron repulsion and reduces the effective nuclear attraction felt per outer electron, so the electron cloud expands and the radius increases.
  3. 3(b) On losing an electron, proton number and nuclear charge stay constant while electron number falls.
  4. 4Repulsion decreases and the remaining electrons experience a higher effective nuclear charge, so the electron cloud contracts and the radius decreases.

Final answer

An anion is larger than its parent atom because added electrons increase repulsion, whereas a cation is smaller because electron loss increases effective nuclear attraction.

132

NCERT Exercise 3.25 — First Ionization Enthalpies of Isotopes

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Isotopes have the same atomic number and therefore the same number of protons.
  2. 2For neutral atoms they also have the same number of electrons and the same ground-state electronic configuration, so nuclear attraction on the electron being removed is the same.
  3. 3The differing nuclear masses do not materially change the electrostatic attraction responsible for chemical ionization enthalpy.
  4. 4Small isotope-dependent nuclear-volume effects can exist in very precise physical measurements, but they are not part of the periodic trend expected in this exercise.

Final answer

The first ionization enthalpies are expected to be the same for isotopes because they have identical nuclear charge and electronic structure.

133

NCERT Exercise 3.26 — Major Differences between Metals and Non-Metals

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) Metals have low ionization enthalpies and lose electrons to form cations; non-metals generally have high ionization enthalpies and gain electrons to form anions.
  2. 2(ii) Metals have relatively high reducing power and less-negative electron gain enthalpies; non-metals commonly have more-negative electron gain enthalpies and oxidizing character.
  3. 3(iii) Metals are electropositive and have low electronegativity, whereas non-metals are electronegative and attract bonding electrons more strongly.
  4. 4(iv) Metal–non-metal combinations are usually ionic, while compounds formed mainly between non-metals are usually covalent.
  5. 5(v) Metal oxides are generally basic or amphoteric, while non-metal oxides are generally acidic, though neutral oxides also occur.
  6. 6(vi) Metals readily lose electrons and act as reducing agents; non-metals tend to gain electrons and act as oxidizing agents.
  7. 7(vii) Metals are generally lustrous, malleable and ductile and have relatively high density and melting points; solid non-metals are generally brittle and have lower melting points.

Final answer

Metals generally lose electrons, form cations and ionic compounds, have basic oxides and reducing character, while non-metals generally gain electrons, form covalent compounds, have acidic oxides and oxidizing character.

134

NCERT Exercise 3.27 — Identifying Elements from Valence-Electron Counts

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Five electrons in the outer subshell follow the pattern ns²np⁵, so bromine is one valid example; the other halogens F, Cl, I and At also fit.
  2. 2(b) Losing two electrons is favoured by the ns² configuration of group 2; magnesium is a suitable example.
  3. 3(c) Gaining two electrons is favoured by ns²np⁴, the group 16 pattern; oxygen or sulfur is a suitable example.
  4. 4(d) Group 17 is the intended family: F and Cl are gases, Br is a liquid, and I and At are solids at room temperature, while metallic character increases down the group and is expected to be appreciable in At.
  5. 5Thus group 17 displays both the physical states and the trend from strongly non-metallic to increasingly metallic character described in the question.

Final answer

(a) Br, for example; (b) Mg, for example; (c) O or S; (d) group 17.

135

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Group 1 atoms have one valence electron and tend to lose it. Atomic size and shielding increase down the group, so ionization enthalpy decreases and electron loss becomes easier; therefore reactivity increases.
  2. 2Group 17 atoms need one electron for a complete valence octet. Down the group, increased size and shielding generally make electron-gain enthalpy less negative, so electron acceptance becomes less favourable.
  3. 3Fluorine is the exception in electron-gain enthalpy because its very compact 2p shell produces strong incoming-electron repulsion, so Cl has the more negative value.
  4. 4Fluorine nevertheless has the greatest oxidizing reactivity because F₂ has a low bond dissociation enthalpy and F has a very high effective attraction for electrons; its small size also gives strong interaction with many reductants.

Final answer

Metallic reactivity increases down group 1 as ionization enthalpy falls, whereas halogen reactivity decreases down group 17 as electron acceptance becomes less favourable, with F₂ remaining most reactive because of its low bond dissociation enthalpy.

136

NCERT Exercise 3.29 — General Outer Electronic Configurations of the Blocks

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In an s-block element, the differentiating electron enters an ns subshell:
  2. 2
  3. 3In a p-block element, the ns subshell is filled and the differentiating electron enters np:
  4. 4
  5. 5In a d-block element, the last electron enters the penultimate (n − 1)d subshell while the outer ns subshell is filled or nearly filled:
  6. 6
  7. 7In an f-block element, the differentiating electron enters (n − 2)f while ns² is filled and the penultimate d subshell has 0 or 1 electron:
  8. 8
  9. 9These patterns identify the block from the subshell receiving the last electron; the principal shell containing ns also gives the period number.

Final answer

The general patterns are ns¹⁻² for s-block, ns²np¹⁻⁶ for p-block, (n − 1)d¹⁻¹⁰ns⁰⁻² for d-block and (n − 2)f¹⁻¹⁴(n − 1)d⁰⁻¹ns² for f-block elements.

137

NCERT Exercise 3.30 — Period and Group from Outer Electronic Configuration

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) The valence shell has n = 3, so the period is 3; an np⁴ ending identifies a p-block element. With two s-block groups and ten d-block groups before it, the group number is 2 + 10 + 4 = 16, identifying sulfur.
  2. 2(ii) The valence shell has n = 4, so the period is 4; the d² ending places the element in the d-block. Its group is 2 + 2 = 4, identifying titanium.
  3. 3(iii) The valence shell has n = 6, so the period is 6; the f⁷ ending places the element in the f-block, conventionally shown in group 3.
  4. 4Complete the configuration as [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s² and calculate the atomic number:
  5. 5
  6. 6The element with Z = 64 is gadolinium.

Final answer

(i) S: period 3, group 16; (ii) Ti: period 4, group 4; (iii) Gd: period 6, f-block (group 3), Z = 64.

138

NCERT Exercise 3.31 — Reactivity and Halides from Ionization and Electron-Gain Data

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Identify the characteristic ionization patterns. I and II have low first values but large jumps to the second value, indicating one easily lost electron followed by removal from a noble-gas core; their data match Li and K, respectively.
  2. 2VI has first and second ionization enthalpies of 738 and 1451 kJ mol⁻¹ with no core-sized jump between them, matching Mg. III and IV match F and I, while the very high first value and positive electron gain enthalpy of V match He.
  3. 3(a) V is least reactive because its first ionization enthalpy of 2372 kJ mol⁻¹ is highest and electron addition is endothermic at +48 kJ mol⁻¹.
  4. 4(b) II is most reactive as a metal because its first ionization enthalpy of 419 kJ mol⁻¹ is lowest and its electron gain tendency is weak.
  5. 5(c) III is most reactive as a non-metal because it combines a high first ionization enthalpy with the most negative electron gain enthalpy, −328 kJ mol⁻¹.
  6. 6(d) V is the least reactive non-metal in the listed set because its closed-shell configuration makes both electron loss and electron gain energetically unfavourable.
  7. 7(e) VI forms MX₂: its comparatively low second ionization enthalpy of 1451 kJ mol⁻¹ allows two electrons to be removed, so it behaves as a Group 2 metal and gives a stable predominantly ionic halide.
  8. 8(f) I fits MX: its huge jump from 520 to 7300 kJ mol⁻¹ identifies an alkali metal. Among the alkali metals, the small Li⁺ ion strongly polarizes a halide ion, so lithium halide such as LiF has substantial covalent character and the predominantly stable MX pattern is characteristic of Li.

Final answer

(a) V; (b) II; (c) III; (d) V; (e) VI; (f) I.

139

NCERT Exercise 3.32 — Formulas of Stable Binary Compounds

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Li forms Li⁺ and O forms O²⁻, so charge balance requires two Li⁺ ions for each oxide ion.
  2. 2
  3. 3(b) Mg forms Mg²⁺ and nitride is N³⁻; three Mg²⁺ ions balance two nitride ions.
  4. 4
  5. 5(c) Al forms Al³⁺ and iodide is I⁻, requiring a 1:3 ratio.
  6. 6
  7. 7(d) Silicon commonly forms Si⁴⁺ and oxide is O²⁻, giving a 1:2 ratio.
  8. 8
  9. 9(e) Fluorine is monovalent and phosphorus can show valencies 3 or 5, so stable binary fluorides include PF₃ and PF₅; PF₅ is the expected higher-valency product under excess fluorine.
  10. 10
  11. 11(f) Z = 71 is lutetium, a lanthanide with the characteristic oxidation state +3; F has oxidation state −1.
  12. 12

Final answer

The formulas are (a) Li₂O, (b) Mg₃N₂, (c) AlI₃, (d) SiO₂, (e) PF₃ or PF₅, and (f) LuF₃.

140

NCERT Exercise 3.33 — Quantity Indicated by the Period Number

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Each new period begins when electrons start entering a shell with a new principal quantum number n.
  2. 2The period number is therefore the principal quantum number of the outermost shell for the elements in that row, apart from details of individual configurations that do not change the row assignment.
  3. 3Atomic number increases across a whole table rather than defining a single period, while azimuthal quantum number l identifies subshell type rather than period number.

Final answer

A period indicates the principal quantum number, so option (c) is correct.

141

NCERT Exercise 3.34 — Incorrect Statement about Periodic-Table Blocks

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The number of orbitals in a subshell is 2l + 1, and each orbital can hold 2 electrons; hence the maximum capacity is 2(2l + 1).
  2. 2For p, d and f subshells, l = 1, 2 and 3, so the maximum occupancies are 6, 10 and 14 electrons respectively.
  3. 3A d subshell has 5 orbitals and holds 10 electrons, not 8, so the d-block has 10 columns, not 8.
  4. 4The other statements agree with the correspondence between block width, subshell capacity and the l value of the differentiating subshell.

Final answer

Statement (b) is incorrect: the d-block has 10 columns because a d subshell can accommodate 10 electrons.

142

NCERT Exercise 3.35 — Factor That Does Not Affect the Valence Shell

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The valence principal quantum number fixes the shell in which valence electrons are located.
  2. 2Nuclear charge governs attraction for valence electrons, and the number of core electrons controls shielding experienced by the valence shell.
  3. 3Valence-shell chemistry is governed mainly by charge and electron arrangement, not by the small isotope-dependent change in nuclear mass.
  4. 4Hence nuclear mass is the factor that does not determine the valence shell or its chemistry in the context of this question.

Final answer

Nuclear mass, option (c), does not affect the valence shell in this periodic-trend treatment.

143

NCERT Exercise 3.36 — Size of the Species F⁻, Ne and Na⁺

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Each species has 10 electrons: F⁻ has 9 + 1, Ne has 10, and Na⁺ has 11 − 1 electrons.
  2. 2Their nuclear charges are different, increasing from Z = 9 for F to Z = 10 for Ne and Z = 11 for Na.
  3. 3For an isoelectronic set, greater nuclear charge contracts the electron cloud, so increasing radius follows decreasing nuclear charge.
  4. 4

Final answer

The size is affected by nuclear charge, option (a), with the radius order Na⁺ < Ne < F⁻.

144

NCERT Exercise 3.37 — Incorrect Statement about Ionization Enthalpy

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Successive ionization enthalpies increase because each electron is removed from a species with greater positive charge and the remaining electrons are more strongly bound.
  2. 2A large jump occurs when the outer valence electrons have been removed and the next electron must come from a closed noble-gas core.
  3. 3Electrons in a lower-n orbital are closer to the nucleus, experience weaker shielding relative to their charge and are more strongly attracted than electrons in a higher-n orbital.
  4. 4Therefore, an electron with higher n is easier to remove, which makes statement (d) incorrect.

Final answer

Statement (d) is incorrect because an electron with higher n is easier to remove than one with lower n.

145

NCERT Exercise 3.38 — Order of Metallic Character in B, Al, Mg and K

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Metallic character generally increases from right to left across a period because size decreases and effective nuclear charge increases toward the right.
  2. 2It generally increases down a group because valence electrons occupy higher principal shells and are more shielded.
  3. 3Mg lies to the left of Al in period 3, so Mg is more metallic than Al.
  4. 4K lies to the left of Mg in period 4, so K is more metallic than Mg; B is to the right of and above Al, making B the least metallic of the four.
  5. 5

Final answer

The correct order is K > Mg > Al > B, option (d).

146

NCERT Exercise 3.39 — Order of Non-Metallic Character in B, C, N, F and Si

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Non-metallic character generally increases from left to right across a period because size decreases and attraction for bonding electrons increases.
  2. 2Thus, within period 2 the order is F > N > C > B.
  3. 3Non-metallic character generally decreases down a group because atomic size and shielding increase; hence C is more non-metallic than its congener Si.
  4. 4Si is also less non-metallic than B in this set, consistent with its lower period position and greater metallic character; the combined order is F > N > C > B > Si.
  5. 5

Final answer

The correct order is F > N > C > B > Si, option (c).

147

NCERT Exercise 3.40 — Oxidizing Character of F, Cl, O and N

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Oxidizing character is the ability to accept electrons and is supported by high effective nuclear attraction and a stable configuration after electron gain.
  2. 2Across period 2, the general increase in electronegativity and electron-accepting tendency gives F > O > N; nitrogen is especially reluctant to add an electron because its 2p³ subshell is already half filled and stable.
  3. 3Down group 17, oxidizing strength decreases because atoms become larger and more shielded, so F is a stronger oxidizing element than Cl even though Cl has the more negative electron gain enthalpy.
  4. 4The electron-gain-enthalpy exception does not reverse the halogen order because F₂ also has a low bond dissociation enthalpy; its F atoms are small and attract transferred electrons strongly.
  5. 5For the cross-period comparison required here, O is more electronegative and smaller than Cl and is the stronger oxidizing element, while N remains the weakest of the four.
  6. 6

Final answer

The correct oxidizing-character order is F > O > Cl > N, option (b).

148

Chapter 4 — Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Chemical bonding explains why atoms and ions combine, why molecules have definite shapes, and how electronic structure controls properties. These exercises cover Lewis symbols and structures, the octet rule, ionic and covalent bonding, resonance, molecular geometry, hybridisation, bond polarity, dipole moment, hydrogen bonding, valence-bond overlap and molecular-orbital bond order. Each solution uses descriptive Lewis and orbital accounts so that electron accounting remains clear without relying on damaged diagrams.

Board pattern

For an ionic bond, look for a low ionisation enthalpy on the metal side, a large electron-gain magnitude on the non-metal side and high lattice enthalpy. For every shape, write steric number = number of σ bonds + number of lone pairs, then state the hybridisation, shape and bond angle. For polarity, compare electronegativities explicitly and add bond dipoles vectorially; equal dipoles cancel only in a symmetric arrangement. In hydrogen bonding, identify a strongly polar H bonded to N, O or F and an electronegative atom with a lone pair.

Work through the official sequence: bond formation, Lewis structures, ionic criteria and VSEPR shape (4.1–4.12); resonance, electron transfer, polarity and hybrid orbital geometry (4.13–4.24); adduct formation, multiple-bond overlap and σ/π bonding (4.25–4.33); and molecular-orbital theory, magnetism and hydrogen bonding (4.34–4.40). The numbering below is the unchanged NCERT range.

149

NCERT Exercise 4.1 — Formation of a Chemical Bond

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Atoms tend to acquire the electron configuration of the nearest noble gas because a filled valence shell gives a lower-energy, more stable state.
  2. 2As atoms approach, attraction between each nucleus and the electrons of the other atom competes with repulsion between the two nuclei and between the two electron clouds.
  3. 3At the equilibrium bond distance, the net attraction stabilises the pair and lowers the potential energy of the system.
  4. 4If electron transfer produces stable ions, the resulting electrostatic attraction is an ionic bond; if valence electrons are shared, the resulting electron density between nuclei gives a covalent bond.
  5. 5Thus bond formation is the energetic stabilisation that accompanies electron rearrangement, whether the bonding is ionic, covalent or metallic.

Final answer

A chemical bond forms when electron rearrangement and attraction between the bonded particles produce a lower-energy arrangement, usually approaching a stable noble-gas valence configuration.

150

NCERT Exercise 4.2 — Lewis Symbols for Mg, Na, B, O, N and Br

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A Lewis symbol shows only the valence-shell electrons of a free atom: Mg has 2, Na has 1, B has 3, O has 6, N has 5 and Br has 7 valence electrons.
  2. 2Place these electrons beside the element symbol, pairing them where convenient: Mg has two single dots; Na has one; B has three; O has six; N has five; and Br has seven.
  3. 3The exact left–right placement of equivalent dots is only a drawing convention; the essential Lewis information is the number and pairing of the valence electrons around each atom.

Final answer

The Lewis symbols contain respectively 2, 1, 3, 6, 5 and 7 valence-electron dots for Mg, Na, B, O, N and Br.

151

NCERT Exercise 4.3 — Lewis Symbols of Atoms and Ions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1S has 6 valence electrons. In S²⁻, two electrons have been gained, so the ion has 8 valence electrons, arranged as four lone pairs, and its formal charge is −2.
  2. 2Al has 3 valence electrons. In Al³⁺, all three have been removed, so the ion has no valence electrons to display and its formal charge is +3.
  3. 3H has 1 valence electron. In H⁻, one electron has been gained, so the ion has 2 electrons, forming one lone pair and completing the duet; its formal charge is −1.
  4. 4The cation symbols show no dots because the displayed Lewis symbol contains the remaining valence electrons, while the charge identifies electron loss.

Final answer

S and S²⁻ show 6 and 8 valence electrons; Al and Al³⁺ show 3 and 0; H and H⁻ show 1 and 2, respectively.

152

NCERT Exercise 4.4 — Lewis Structures of H₂S, SiCl₄, BeF₂, CO₃²⁻ and HCOOH

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Count valence electrons: H₂S has 8, SiCl₄ has 32, BeF₂ has 16, CO₃²⁻ has 24 and HCOOH has 18 valence electrons.
  2. 2H₂S: S is central and forms two S–H single bonds. Sulfur retains 2 lone pairs, so both H atoms and sulfur satisfy the octet.
  3. 3SiCl₄: Si forms 4 Si–Cl single bonds. Silicon has no lone pair and each chlorine has 3 lone pairs.
  4. 4BeF₂: Be forms 2 Be–F single bonds and has no lone pair. Each F has 3 lone pairs; Be retains an incomplete duet, a recognised exception to the octet rule.
  5. 5CO₃²⁻: carbon is bonded to 3 oxygen atoms. One contributor has one C=O bond and two C–O single bonds; the double-bonded O has 2 lone pairs, each singly bonded O has 3 lone pairs and carries −1, giving total charge −2.
  6. 6HCOOH: the connectivity is H–C(=O)–O–H. The carbonyl O and hydroxyl O each have 2 lone pairs, and every atom has an octet except hydrogen, which has a duet; all formal charges are zero.
  7. 7

Final answer

H₂S has 2 S–H bonds and 2 S lone pairs; SiCl₄ has 4 Si–Cl bonds; BeF₂ has 2 Be–F bonds; CO₃²⁻ has three C–O connections with the charges stated above; HCOOH has H–C(=O)–O–H connectivity with 2 lone pairs on each O.

153

NCERT Exercise 4.5 — Octet Rule, Significance and Limitations

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The octet rule states that atoms tend to combine by transfer or sharing of valence electrons so that each atom attains the electron configuration of the nearest noble gas.
  2. 2Its significance is that it provides a simple qualitative test for stable Lewis structures, common formulas and whether a bond is ionic or covalent.
  3. 3An incomplete octet is possible in species such as BeCl₂, BF₃ and AlCl₃, so the rule is not universal for electron-deficient compounds.
  4. 4Odd-electron species such as NO and NO₂ cannot give every atom an octet.
  5. 5Period-3 and heavier atoms can exceed an octet, as in PF₅ and SF₆, and noble gases such as Xe and Kr can form compounds such as XeF₂ and KrF₂.
  6. 6Finally, the rule does not by itself predict molecular shape or relative stability; those require VSEPR, resonance or valence-bond and molecular-orbital reasoning.

Final answer

The octet rule is a useful Lewis guideline for attaining a noble-gas valence configuration, but it has exceptions for incomplete octets, odd-electron species, expanded octets and noble-gas compounds and cannot alone predict shape.

154

NCERT Exercise 4.6 — Factors Favouring Ionic Bond Formation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Formation of an ionic compound requires energy to remove electrons from a metal and add them to a non-metal, followed by energy released when the resulting ions form a crystal lattice.
  2. 2A low ionisation enthalpy makes electron loss from the metal inexpensive, while a high magnitude of exothermic electron-gain enthalpy makes electron addition favourable.
  3. 3A large lattice enthalpy stabilises the ionic solid; it is especially large for highly charged ions and small ionic radii.
  4. 4
  5. 5Therefore, easy cation formation, easy anion formation and strong electrostatic attraction in the lattice all favour ionic bonding.

Final answer

Ionic bond formation is favoured by low metal ionisation enthalpy, a large exothermic electron-gain magnitude for the non-metal and high lattice enthalpy, particularly with small, highly charged ions.

155

NCERT Exercise 4.7 — VSEPR Shapes of Six Species

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Use steric number = number of σ bonds + number of lone pairs on the central atom, then assign hybridisation and geometry.
  2. 2BeCl₂: steric number = 2 + 0 = 2, so it is sp hybridised, linear, with a Cl–Be–Cl angle of 180°.
  3. 3BCl₃: steric number = 3 + 0 = 3, so it is sp² hybridised, trigonal planar, with bond angles of 120°.
  4. 4SiCl₄: steric number = 4 + 0 = 4, so it is sp³ hybridised, tetrahedral, with bond angles of 109.5°.
  5. 5AsF₅: steric number = 5 + 0 = 5, so it is sp³d hybridised and trigonal bipyramidal. Equatorial–equatorial angles are 120°, axial–equatorial angles are 90° and the axial–axial angle is 180°.
  6. 6H₂S: steric number = 2 σ bonds + 1 lone pair = 3, so it is sp³ hybridised. The electron arrangement is trigonal planar, but molecular shape is bent with an H–S–H angle of about 92°.
  7. 7PH₃: steric number = 3 σ bonds + 1 lone pair = 4, so it is sp³ hybridised, trigonal pyramidal, with an H–P–H angle of about 93.5°.
  8. 8Lone-pair repulsion compresses the bond angles of H₂S and PH₃ below the ideal tetrahedral value of 109.5°.

Final answer

BeCl₂ is linear, BCl₃ trigonal planar, SiCl₄ tetrahedral, AsF₅ trigonal bipyramidal, H₂S bent and PH₃ trigonal pyramidal.

156

NCERT Exercise 4.8 — Why Water Has a Smaller Bond Angle

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For NH₃, steric number = 3 σ bonds + 1 lone pair = 4; the electron-pair geometry is tetrahedral and the atom is sp³ hybridised.
  2. 2For H₂O, steric number = 2 σ bonds + 2 lone pairs = 4; its electron-pair geometry is also tetrahedral and oxygen is sp³ hybridised.
  3. 3VSEPR repulsion follows lone pair–lone pair > lone pair–bond pair > bond pair–bond pair.
  4. 4Water has one lone-pair–lone-pair interaction and each lone pair also compresses the O–H bonds. Ammonia has only one lone pair, so its H–N–H bonds are compressed less.
  5. 5The resulting bond angles are approximately 104.5° in H₂O and 107.8° in NH₃.

Final answer

Both have steric number 4, but the two lone pairs on oxygen repel more strongly and compress the O–H bonds more, so H₂O has the smaller bond angle.

157

NCERT Exercise 4.9 — Bond Strength in Terms of Bond Order

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In molecular-orbital theory, bond order measures the net number of bonding interactions and is a dimensionless quantity.
  2. 2
  3. 3Here Nᵦ is the number of electrons in bonding orbitals and Nₐ is the number in antibonding orbitals.
  4. 4Removing an electron from an antibonding orbital or adding one to a bonding orbital raises bond order and usually strengthens and shortens the bond; the reverse lowers it.

Final answer

A higher dimensionless bond order corresponds to a stronger bond because there is a greater excess of bonding over antibonding electrons.

158

NCERT Exercise 4.10 — Meaning and Measurement of Bond Length

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Bond length is the equilibrium internuclear distance between two bonded atoms in a molecule or ion.
  2. 2It is commonly expressed in picometres or ångströms.
  3. 3
  4. 4For an ionic bond, the distance is approximately the sum of the cation and anion radii; for a covalent bond it is approximately the sum of the bonded atoms' covalent radii.
  5. 5Bond lengths are obtained from diffraction, rotational spectroscopy and other structural measurements. A shorter bond is generally associated with stronger bonding, although atom sizes must also be considered.

Final answer

Bond length is the equilibrium distance between bonded nuclei, normally reported in pm or Å; 1 Å = 100 pm = 10⁻¹⁰ m.

159

NCERT Exercise 4.11 — Resonance in the Carbonate Ion

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Carbonate has 4 + 3(6) + 2 = 24 valence electrons and a trigonal-planar arrangement with three equivalent C–O connections.
  2. 2Contributor I places the C=O bond on one oxygen and single bonds to the other two oxygens, which each carry −1.
  3. 3Contributor II places the C=O bond on a second oxygen, while contributor III places it on the third oxygen. Carbon carries +1 in each expanded-octet contributor, and the remaining two oxygens carry −1 each.
  4. 4The nuclei remain in the same positions in all three contributors; only the distribution of π electrons and formal charges changes, so they are canonical forms rather than separate structures that interconvert.
  5. 5The real carbonate ion is the resonance hybrid of the three equivalent contributors. Delocalisation lowers its energy and makes all three C–O bonds equal, with bond order 1⅓ and length intermediate between a C–O single and C=O double bond.
  6. 6

Final answer

CO₃²⁻ is a resonance hybrid of three equivalent contributors, one for each possible C=O position, so all three C–O bonds are identical and have bond order 1⅓.

160

NCERT Exercise 4.12 — Resonance Test for H₃PO₃ Structures

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Canonical resonance contributors must have exactly the same positions of nuclei and differ only in electron placement.
  2. 2The two displayed forms change which hydrogen is attached directly to phosphorus and therefore change atomic connectivity, not merely π-electron placement.
  3. 3They are distinct structural arrangements rather than resonance contributors.
  4. 4The conventional connectivity of phosphorous acid is H–P(=O)(OH)₂; its two equivalent P–OH bonds can participate in resonance, but the displayed I and II cannot be paired as I and II resonance forms.

Final answer

No. Structures I and II change the positions or connectivity of atoms, whereas resonance contributors must retain the same nuclear arrangement and differ only in electrons.

161

NCERT Exercise 4.13 — Resonance Structures of SO₃, NO₂ and NO₃⁻

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1SO₃: describe three equivalent principal contributors. In turn, choose a different oxygen for the S=O bond; the other two oxygens are singly bonded and each carries −1, while S carries +1. Each double-bonded O carries 0 and has 2 lone pairs; each O⁻ has 3 lone pairs.
  2. 2A less important all-single-bond contributor has three S–O single bonds, S carrying +2 and each O carrying −1, but the three principal expanded-octet forms account for the observed equivalence of the S–O bonds.
  3. 3NO₂: there are 17 valence electrons and two equivalent contributors. In one, N=O and N–O⁻; in the other, the N=O bond is on the other oxygen. N has formal charge +1, the singly bonded O has −1, and N retains one unpaired electron.
  4. 4NO₃⁻: there are 24 valence electrons and three equivalent contributors, each placing the N=O bond on a different oxygen. N has +1; two singly bonded O atoms each have −1; the double-bonded O has 0.
  5. 5In every case, the nuclei stay fixed while π electrons are delocalised, and the true species is the lower-energy resonance hybrid rather than any single contributor.

Final answer

SO₃ and NO₃⁻ each have three equivalent resonance contributors with the double bond on a different O; NO₂ has two equivalent contributors and one unpaired electron.

162

NCERT Exercise 4.14 — Electron Transfer in Three Ion Pairs

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1K has configuration 2, 8, 8, 1 and S has 2, 8, 6. Each K transfers one electron to an S atom, forming K⁺ and S⁻, both with the argon configuration; two K⁺ ions are required per S²⁻ in K₂S.
  2. 2Ca has configuration 2, 8, 8, 2 and O has 2, 6. Ca transfers two electrons to O, forming Ca²⁺ and O²⁻, each with the argon configuration; their formula is CaO.
  3. 3Al has configuration 2, 8, 3 and N has 2, 5. Al transfers three electrons to N, forming Al³⁺ and N³⁻, each with the neon configuration; their formula is AlN.
  4. 4In each transfer, both ions gain stable noble-gas configurations, and electrostatic attraction between the oppositely charged ions stabilises the compound.

Final answer

The transfers are K⁺ + S⁻ (and K₂S), Ca²⁺ + O²⁻ (CaO), and Al³⁺ + N³⁻ (AlN).

163

NCERT Exercise 4.15 — Dipole Moments of Carbon Dioxide and Water

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Oxygen is more electronegative than carbon, so each C=O bond in CO₂ is polar and directed from carbon toward oxygen.
  2. 2CO₂ has steric number = 2 + 0 = 2, is sp hybridised and is linear at 180°. The two equal C=O bond dipoles oppose one another and cancel, so μ(CO₂) = 0 D.
  3. 3Oxygen is also more electronegative than hydrogen, so each O–H bond in water is polar toward oxygen.
  4. 4H₂O has steric number = 2 + 2 = 4, is sp³ hybridised and is bent with an H–O–H angle of 104.5°. The two equal O–H bond dipoles do not cancel because they are not opposite.
  5. 5Their vector resultant points along the molecular bisector and has a magnitude of 1.84 D for water.

Final answer

The two equal C=O dipoles cancel in linear CO₂ (0 D), whereas the two equal O–H dipoles do not cancel in bent H₂O, whose dipole moment is 1.84 D.

164

NCERT Exercise 4.16 — Significance and Applications of Dipole Moment

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Dipole moment is the product of charge magnitude and the separation of the centres of positive and negative charge; it is a vector directed from positive to negative charge.
  2. 2
  3. 3Its SI unit is C·m; the commonly used debye unit D is exactly equivalent to the value shown.
  4. 4A nonpolar molecule has μ = 0 D because its bond dipoles cancel, whereas a polar molecule has a nonzero vector resultant. Thus dipole moment distinguishes isomers with different symmetry.
  5. 5Bond dipole data help identify molecular geometry, bond polarity and the percentage ionic character of a bond. For a diatomic bond, μ(observed) divided by μ(ionic) provides the percentage ionic character; for polyatomic molecules, the vector sum must be used.

Final answer

Dipole moment is μ = qr in C·m and is used to test polarity, infer molecular geometry, compare isomers and estimate the ionic character of bonding.

165

NCERT Exercise 4.17 — Electronegativity and Electron Gain Enthalpy

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Electronegativity is the ability of an atom in a bond to attract the shared electron pair toward itself.
  2. 2It is a relative property, is not directly measurable as an absolute quantity and can vary with the atom or environment to which a given element is bonded.
  3. 3Electron gain enthalpy is the enthalpy change when one mole of electrons is added to one mole of a neutral gaseous atom to form a gaseous anion.
  4. 4
  5. 5Electron gain enthalpy is experimentally measurable, is a property of an isolated gaseous species, and may be exothermic or endothermic; electronegativity is dimensionless and comparative.

Final answer

Electronegativity is a relative bonded-atom ability to attract electron density, whereas electron gain enthalpy is the measurable enthalpy change for adding an electron to a gaseous atom.

166

NCERT Exercise 4.18 — Polar Covalent Bonding in Hydrogen Chloride

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A polar covalent bond forms when two bonded atoms have different electronegativities, so the shared electron pair is displaced toward the more electronegative atom.
  2. 2For HCl, chlorine is more electronegative than hydrogen: the dimensionless Pauling values are approximately 3.16 and 2.20, respectively.
  3. 3The shared pair therefore lies closer to chlorine, producing partial charges rather than complete ions.
  4. 4
  5. 5HCl is therefore covalent because the pair is shared, but polar because the sharing is unequal.

Final answer

In HCl, χ(Cl) > χ(H), so the shared pair shifts toward chlorine and the bond is polar covalent with Hδ+ and Clδ− ends.

167

NCERT Exercise 4.19 — Increasing Ionic Character of Bonds

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Ionic character generally increases as the electronegativity difference between bonded atoms increases.
  2. 2
  3. 3The N–N bond in N₂ joins identical atoms, so Δχ = 0 and it is nonpolar covalent.
  4. 4S–O and Cl–F are polar covalent bonds; their electronegativity differences are similar, with Cl–F conventionally placed after S–O for the NCERT qualitative comparison.
  5. 5K–O has a much larger difference and is strongly ionic, while Li–F has the largest difference in the set and is the most ionic.
  6. 6The order of increasing ionic character is therefore N₂ < SO₂ < ClF₃ < K₂O < LiF.

Final answer

N₂ < SO₂ < ClF₃ < K₂O < LiF.

168

NCERT Exercise 4.20 — Correct Lewis Structure of Acetic Acid

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Count the valence electrons: 2(4) + 4(1) + 2(6) = 24.
  2. 2Keep the skeleton CH₃–C–O–H and provide carbon with four bonds in total.
  3. 3Use the carboxyl carbon to form a C=O double bond, a C–OH single bond and a C–CH₃ single bond; the methyl carbon forms three C–H single bonds and the hydroxyl oxygen forms one O–H single bond.
  4. 4Place 2 lone pairs on the carbonyl oxygen and 2 lone pairs on the hydroxyl oxygen. No atom then exceeds an octet, hydrogen has a duet and all formal charges are zero.
  5. 5

Final answer

Acetic acid is CH₃–C(=O)–O–H, with 2 lone pairs on each oxygen and zero formal charge on every atom.

169

NCERT Exercise 4.21 — Why CH₄ Is Not Square Planar

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In CH₄, carbon has steric number = 4 σ bonds + 0 lone pairs = 4, so its four bonding domains are sp³ hybridised.
  2. 2The four equivalent sp³ orbitals point toward the corners of a tetrahedron, giving an H–C–H angle of 109.5°.
  3. 3A square-planar arrangement would require 90° separations and stronger electron-pair repulsions; the tetrahedral arrangement minimises these repulsions.
  4. 4It would also formally require dsp²-type participation from energetically high d orbitals, which is not competitive with sp³ bonding for carbon in methane.
  5. 5Both valence-bond and VSEPR reasoning therefore select the tetrahedral structure rather than a square plane.

Final answer

CH₄ has steric number 4 and four sp³ orbitals, so tetrahedral bonding at 109.5° is more stable than a 90° square-planar arrangement.

170

NCERT Exercise 4.22 — Zero Dipole Moment of BeH₂

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Hydrogen is more electronegative than beryllium, so each Be–H bond is polar and its bond dipole points from Be toward H.
  2. 2The central Be has steric number = 2 σ bonds + 0 lone pairs = 2, so it is sp hybridised and gaseous BeH₂ is linear with a 180° H–Be–H angle.
  3. 3The two Be–H bond dipoles have equal magnitude and point in exactly opposite directions.
  4. 4
  5. 5Vector cancellation makes the molecular dipole zero even though each individual bond is polar.

Final answer

Linear BeH₂ has two equal and opposite Be–H bond dipoles, so its net dipole moment is 0 D.

171

NCERT Exercise 4.23 — Comparing Dipole Moments of NH₃ and NF₃

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Both central N atoms have steric number = 3 σ bonds + 1 lone pair = 4, so both molecules are sp³ hybridised and trigonal pyramidal.
  2. 2Nitrogen is more electronegative than hydrogen, so the three N–H bond dipoles point toward N and reinforce the nitrogen lone-pair contribution.
  3. 3Fluorine is more electronegative than nitrogen, so the three N–F bond dipoles point from N toward F and oppose the nitrogen lone-pair contribution; consequently much of the vector sum cancels.
  4. 4The observed values are μ(NH₃) = 1.46 D and μ(NF₃) = 0.24 D.
  5. 5Therefore, despite a larger bond-polarity difference in N–F, the molecular dipole moment of NH₃ is much greater.

Final answer

NH₃ has the higher dipole moment, 1.46 D, compared with 0.24 D for NF₃, because the N–H bond-resultant reinforces the lone-pair contribution whereas the N–F resultant opposes it.

172

NCERT Exercise 4.24 — Shapes of sp, sp² and sp³ Hybrid Orbitals

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Hybridisation is the mathematical mixing of atomic orbitals of similar energy on the same atom to produce an equal or equivalent set of directed hybrid orbitals.
  2. 2The number of hybrid orbitals equals the number of electron domains, that is σ bonds plus lone pairs on the central atom.
  3. 3sp hybridisation mixes one s and one p orbital to form 2 linear sp orbitals directed 180° apart.
  4. 4sp² hybridisation mixes one s and two p orbitals to form 3 coplanar sp² orbitals directed 120° apart in a trigonal plane.
  5. 5sp³ hybridisation mixes one s and three p orbitals to form 4 equivalent sp³ orbitals directed toward the vertices of a tetrahedron with bond angles of 109.5°.
  6. 6

Final answer

Hybridisation produces equivalent directed orbitals: 2 linear sp orbitals at 180°, 3 sp² orbitals at 120° and 4 sp³ orbitals at 109.5°.

173

NCERT Exercise 4.25 — Aluminium Hybridisation on Adduct Formation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In monomeric AlCl₃, Al has steric number = 3 σ bonds + 0 lone pairs = 3.
  2. 2The three bonding domains are sp² hybridised, so isolated AlCl₃ is trigonal planar with 120° bond angles.
  3. 3The electron pair on Cl⁻ is donated into the empty orbital on Al, creating a coordinate Al–Cl bond.
  4. 4AlCl₄⁻ then has steric number = 4 σ bonds + 0 lone pairs = 4, so Al changes from sp² to sp³ and the geometry changes from trigonal planar to tetrahedral with 109.5° angles.
  5. 5

Final answer

Al changes from sp² trigonal planar in AlCl₃ to sp³ tetrahedral in AlCl₄⁻ because coordination raises its steric number from 3 to 4.

174

NCERT Exercise 4.26 — Hybridisation in the Boron–Nitrogen Adduct

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In BF₃, B has steric number = 3 σ bonds + 0 lone pairs = 3 and is sp² hybridised with an empty unhybridised 2p orbital.
  2. 2The nitrogen lone pair in NH₃ is donated into that empty 2p orbital to form a coordinate B←N bond.
  3. 3In the adduct, B has steric number = 4 σ bonds + 0 lone pairs = 4, so B changes from sp² to sp³ and becomes approximately tetrahedral.
  4. 4N in NH₃ already has steric number = 3 σ bonds + 1 lone pair = 4 and is sp³ hybridised; donating the pair to form a fourth σ bond does not increase its steric number, so N remains sp³.

Final answer

B changes from sp² to sp³ on adduct formation, while N remains sp³ hybridised.

175

NCERT Exercise 4.27 — Double and Triple Carbon–Carbon Bonds

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In C₂H₄, each carbon has steric number = 3 σ bonds + 0 lone pairs = 3, so both carbons are sp² hybridised and locally trigonal planar.
  2. 2An sp² orbital on each C forms the C–C σ bond. Each carbon uses its other two sp² orbitals to form two C–H σ bonds with 1s orbitals of H.
  3. 3One unhybridised 2p orbital on each carbon overlaps side by side to form one π bond; hence the C=C bond contains 1 σ + 1 π bond.
  4. 4In C₂H₂, each C has steric number = 2 σ bonds + 0 lone pairs = 2, so both are sp hybridised and the molecule is linear.
  5. 5One sp orbital on each C forms the C–C σ bond, and the other forms a C–H σ bond with H 1s. Two unhybridised p orbitals on each C overlap laterally to form two π bonds, so C≡C contains 1 σ + 2 π bonds.
  6. 6

Final answer

C₂H₄ forms a C=C double bond from one σ and one π overlap; C₂H₂ forms a C≡C triple bond from one σ and two π overlaps.

176

NCERT Exercise 4.28 — Counting Sigma and Pi Bonds in C₂H₂ and C₂H₄

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Every atom-to-atom connection contains exactly one σ bond; a double bond adds one π bond and a triple bond adds two π bonds.
  2. 2C₂H₂ has 2 C–H σ bonds and 1 σ component in C≡C, giving 3 σ bonds; the two remaining components of the triple bond are 2 π bonds.
  3. 3C₂H₄ has 4 C–H σ bonds and 1 σ component in C=C, giving 5 σ bonds; the second component of the double bond is 1 π bond.
  4. 4

Final answer

C₂H₂ contains 3 σ and 2 π bonds; C₂H₄ contains 5 σ and 1 π bond.

177

NCERT Exercise 4.29 — Orbital Overlap That Cannot Form a Sigma Bond

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A σ bond forms by head-on overlap along the internuclear axis.
  2. 21s–1s, 1s–2pₓ and 1s–2s pairs can overlap head-on along the x-axis and form σ bonds.
  3. 3The two 2pᵧ orbitals are perpendicular to the x-axis. If they are parallel, their overlap is lateral rather than head-on.
  4. 4Lateral overlap of parallel 2pᵧ orbitals forms a π bond, not a σ bond.

Final answer

The 2pᵧ–2pᵧ pair cannot form a σ bond because overlap perpendicular to the internuclear axis forms a π bond.

178

NCERT Exercise 4.30 — Carbon Hybrid Orbitals in Five Molecules

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Count four electron domains around each carbon: each σ bond and each lone pair contributes one; a multiple bond counts as only one domain.
  2. 2(a) In CH₃–CH₃, each C has 4 σ bonds and 0 lone pairs, so both C atoms are sp³ hybridised.
  3. 3(b) In CH₃–CH=CH₂, C₁ has 4 σ domains and is sp³, while C₂ and C₃ each have 3 σ domains and are sp².
  4. 4(c) In CH₃–CH₂–OH, each C has 4 σ bonds and no lone pair, so both C atoms are sp³.
  5. 5(d) In CH₃–CHO, the methyl C is sp³ and the carbonyl C has 3 σ domains and is sp².
  6. 6(e) In CH₃COOH, the methyl C is sp³ and the carboxyl C has 3 σ domains and is sp²; the π component of C=O does not add a fourth hybrid domain.

Final answer

(a) both C sp³; (b) C₁ sp³ and C₂, C₃ sp²; (c) both C sp³; (d) CH₃ carbon sp³ and CHO carbon sp²; (e) CH₃ carbon sp³ and COOH carbon sp².

179

NCERT Exercise 4.31 — Bond Pairs and Lone Pairs

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A bond pair is a shared pair of valence electrons that forms a covalent σ bond between two atoms.
  2. 2In C₂H₆, all 14 valence electrons are used in bonding: there are 1 C–C bond and 6 C–H bonds, so 7 bond pairs and no lone pairs on carbon.
  3. 3A lone pair is a pair of valence electrons localised on one atom and not shared in a bond.
  4. 4In H₂O, oxygen forms 2 O–H bond pairs and retains 2 lone pairs; its steric number is therefore 2 + 2 = 4.
  5. 5Bond pairs determine connections between atoms, while lone pairs influence molecular shape and bond angles through electron-domain repulsion.

Final answer

C₂H₆ has 7 bond pairs and no carbon lone pairs; H₂O has 2 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs on oxygen.

180

NCERT Exercise 4.32 — Distinguishing Sigma and Pi Bonds

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A σ bond forms by head-on overlap along the internuclear axis; a π bond forms by lateral overlap of parallel orbitals perpendicular to that axis.
  2. 2σ bonds can arise from s–s, s–p, p–p or hybrid-orbital overlap, whereas the π bonds considered here arise from lateral p-orbital overlap.
  3. 3The electron density of a σ bond is cylindrically symmetric about the internuclear axis; a π bond has two lobes on opposite sides of that axis and a nodal plane containing it.
  4. 4A σ bond is generally stronger than a π bond, and rotation about an isolated σ single bond is comparatively free, whereas a π bond restricts rotation because sideways overlap would be lost.
  5. 5A double bond contains one σ and one π component, while a triple bond contains one σ and two π components.

Final answer

σ bonds are head-on, axially symmetric and generally stronger; π bonds are lateral, nodal about the internuclear axis, weaker and rotation-restricting.

181

NCERT Exercise 4.33 — Valence-Bond Formation of Dihydrogen

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Each H atom has one electron in a spherical 1s orbital. As the atoms approach, attraction develops between each nucleus and the electron of the other atom, while repulsion develops between the nuclei and between the electrons.
  2. 2The total potential energy initially falls because nucleus–electron attraction dominates, allowing the two 1s orbitals to overlap.
  3. 3The electrons pair with opposite spins, and constructive overlap places increased electron density between the two nuclei.
  4. 4This internuclear electron density lowers the energy of the pair. At the equilibrium distance, attractive and repulsive effects balance and the H–H σ bond is formed.
  5. 5
  6. 6The equilibrium H–H bond length is about 74 pm and the bond dissociation energy is about 436 kJ mol⁻¹.

Final answer

The two H 1s orbitals overlap head-on, opposite-spin electrons pair in the resulting σ molecular orbital and the internuclear attraction produces an H–H bond at its minimum-energy separation.

182

NCERT Exercise 4.34 — Conditions for Linear Combination of Atomic Orbitals

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The atomic orbitals to be combined must have the same or nearly the same energy; large energy mismatch gives little mixing.
  2. 2They must have compatible symmetry and proper orientation so that their overlap is constructive and appreciable.
  3. 3The extent of overlap along or across the internuclear axis must be large; distant or poorly oriented orbitals interact weakly.
  4. 4The two atomic orbitals combine linearly to give one bonding and, where non-degenerate conditions permit, one corresponding antibonding molecular orbital.
  5. 5Because molecular orbitals extend over the whole molecule, an electron in a bonding orbital stabilises both nuclei, whereas an electron in an antibonding orbital reduces the net bond.

Final answer

Effective LCAO requires similar orbital energies, compatible symmetry and orientation, and substantial overlap; these conditions generate bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals.

183

NCERT Exercise 4.35 — Why Be₂ Is Not a Stable Discrete Molecule

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Each Be atom has the configuration 1s² 2s², so Be₂ has 8 valence and total electrons.
  2. 2The molecular-orbital configuration is obtained by pairing 1s and 2s atomic orbitals.
  3. 3
  4. 4There are 4 bonding and 4 antibonding electrons, including the cancelling 1s core orbitals.
  5. 5
  6. 6A bond order of 0 gives no net lowering from the separated atoms. Be₂ is therefore not bound as a discrete molecule, although bulk beryllium is metallic and held by delocalised electrons.

Final answer

Be₂ has bond order 0 because its bonding and antibonding electrons cancel, so it does not form a stable discrete molecule.

184

NCERT Exercise 4.36 — Stability and Magnetism of Oxygen Species

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Bond order is one half of bonding electrons minus antibonding electrons; higher bond order means greater stability.
  2. 2The 1s core orbitals cancel. The relevant valence configuration common to the oxygen species is σ(2s)², σ*(2s)², σ(2p_z)², π(2pₓ)², π(2pᵧ)², followed by electrons in the degenerate π* orbitals.
  3. 3O₂ has two electrons in separate π* orbitals: Nᵦ = 8, Nₐ = 4, bond order = 2 and 2 unpaired electrons, so it is paramagnetic.
  4. 4O₂⁺ has one π* electron: Nᵦ = 8, Nₐ = 3, bond order = 2.5 and 1 unpaired electron, so it is paramagnetic.
  5. 5O₂⁻ has three π* electrons: Nᵦ = 8, Nₐ = 5, bond order = 1.5 and 1 unpaired electron, so it is paramagnetic.
  6. 6O₂²⁻ has four π* electrons: Nᵦ = 8, Nₐ = 6, bond order = 1 and no unpaired electron, so it is diamagnetic.
  7. 7Thus the relative stability follows O₂⁺ > O₂ > O₂⁻ > O₂²⁻ because their bond orders are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1.
  8. 8

Final answer

Stability: O₂⁺ > O₂ > O₂⁻ > O₂²⁻; O₂⁺, O₂ and O₂⁻ are paramagnetic, while O₂²⁻ is diamagnetic.

185

NCERT Exercise 4.37 — Meaning of Plus and Minus Signs in Orbitals

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A molecular orbital is represented by a spatial wavefunction, and the plus or minus sign specifies the algebraic sign, or phase, of that wavefunction in a region of space.
  2. 2Lobes on opposite sides of a node can have opposite signs even though the electron density, proportional to the square of the wavefunction, is positive in both lobes.
  3. 3The overall sign of a normalised orbital can be reversed without changing the physical orbital, so a single plus or minus has no independent physical meaning by itself.
  4. 4During overlap, lobes of the same phase combine constructively to give a bonding orbital; lobes of opposite phase combine destructively to give an antibonding orbital.
  5. 5The signs therefore indicate wavefunction phase and overlap, not positive and negative electrical charge.

Final answer

The signs denote the algebraic phase of the wavefunction; plus-like overlap is constructive and minus-like overlap is destructive, not positive and negative charge.

186

NCERT Exercise 4.38 — Hybridisation and Bond Lengths in PCl₅

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The central P has steric number = 5 σ bonds + 0 lone pairs = 5.
  2. 2In the valence-bond description, excited phosphorus uses one 3s, three 3p and one 3d orbital to form five sp³d hybrid orbitals directed toward a trigonal bipyramid.
  3. 3Three P–Cl bonds lie in the equatorial plane and are separated by 120°; two lie above and below that plane, at 90° to it and 180° from each other.
  4. 4Each axial position has three 90° interactions with equatorial bond pairs, whereas each equatorial position has only two 90° interactions with axial bond pairs.
  5. 5The greater repulsion experienced by the axial bond pairs produces longer axial P–Cl bonds than equatorial P–Cl bonds.

Final answer

PCl₅ is sp³d hybridised and trigonal bipyramidal; its axial bonds are longer because each undergoes three 90° interactions with equatorial bonds.

187

NCERT Exercise 4.39 — Hydrogen Bonding and Its Strength

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A hydrogen bond is an electrostatic attraction between H bonded to a highly electronegative atom, commonly N, O or F, and a lone pair on an electronegative atom of a neighbouring molecule or group.
  2. 2
  3. 3The X–H bond is strongly polar, so H carries δ+ and attracts the δ− lone-pair region on Y. The hydrogen bond is therefore a strongly oriented dipole–dipole attraction.
  4. 4It is stronger than ordinary van der Waals dispersion forces because it requires both a large bond dipole and a specific donor–acceptor orientation.
  5. 5Hydrogen bonding may be intermolecular, as in water, or intramolecular, as in suitable ortho-substituted compounds. It is generally weaker than an ordinary covalent or ionic bond and is strongest in the solid state because molecules are more constrained.
  6. 6A water molecule can form four hydrogen bonds: two as donor through its H atoms and two as acceptor through its oxygen lone pairs.

Final answer

A hydrogen bond is an X–H···Y attraction with N, O or F; it is stronger than van der Waals forces but generally weaker than covalent or ionic bonds.

188

NCERT Exercise 4.40 — Bond Order of N₂, O₂, O₂⁺ and O₂⁻

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Bond order is one half of the number of electrons in bonding molecular orbitals minus the number in antibonding molecular orbitals; it is dimensionless.
  2. 2
  3. 3N₂ has 8 bonding and 2 antibonding valence electrons after the cancelling 1s core orbitals are removed, so its bond order is (8 − 2)/2 = 3.
  4. 4O₂ has 8 bonding and 4 antibonding valence electrons, so its bond order is (8 − 4)/2 = 2.
  5. 5O₂⁺ is formed by removing one electron from an antibonding π* orbital of O₂. It has 8 bonding and 3 antibonding electrons, so its bond order is (8 − 3)/2 = 2.5.
  6. 6O₂⁻ is formed by adding one electron to an antibonding π* orbital. It has 8 bonding and 5 antibonding electrons, so its bond order is (8 − 5)/2 = 1.5.
  7. 7

Final answer

The dimensionless bond orders are N₂ = 3, O₂ = 2, O₂⁺ = 2.5 and O₂⁻ = 1.5.

189

Chapter 5 — Chemical Thermodynamics

Chemical thermodynamics connects microscopic composition with measurable heat changes, work, entropy and spontaneous change. These exercises develop state functions, the first law, enthalpy and heat capacity, Hess’s law, bond and formation enthalpies, entropy, the Gibbs energy criterion and the equilibrium-constant relation. Each question is repaired from OCR, renumbered to the official Chapter 5 sequence and worked with explicit laws, substitutions, unit conversions and conclusions.

Board pattern

Begin every calculation by naming the system and writing physical states. Use the chemistry sign convention: heat absorbed by the system and work done on the system are positive, so q = mcΔT follows the sign of ΔT, while work done by the system makes w negative. For Hess’s law, write each thermochemical equation separately, reverse an equation when required, multiply by the matching factor and sign, and cancel species. Use ΔG = ΔH − TΔS for spontaneity, with ΔG < 0, and use ΔG° = −RT ln K for equilibrium.

Work in two natural groups: (5.1–5.10) establishes signs, the first law, enthalpy and heat-capacity calculations, while (5.11–5.22) applies Hess’s law, formation and bond enthalpies, entropy, Gibbs energy and equilibrium constants. All exercise references use the official Chapter 5 numbering.

190

NCERT Exercise 5.1 — Identifying a Thermodynamic State Function

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Apply the definition: a state function depends only on the current state of the system and not on the path used to reach that state.
  2. 2Pressure, volume, temperature, internal energy, enthalpy and entropy are examples of state functions.
  3. 3Heat and work are path functions, while a state function need not depend on temperature alone.
  4. 4Only option (ii) matches the definition.

Final answer

A state function has a path-independent value, so the correct option is (ii).

191

NCERT Exercise 5.2 — Condition for an Adiabatic Process

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1An adiabatic process allows no heat transfer across the system boundary.
  2. 2
  3. 3The temperature, pressure and work may still change, so the other zero quantities are not required.
  4. 4Therefore option (iii) is correct.

Final answer

An adiabatic process satisfies q = 0, so the correct option is (iii).

192

NCERT Exercise 5.3 — Standard Enthalpies of Elements

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1By convention, the standard molar enthalpy of formation of every element in its most stable reference state is assigned a value of zero.
  2. 2
  3. 3This convention applies to each element separately, not to all compounds or all states.
  4. 4Thus the common assigned value is zero, not unity.

Final answer

The standard enthalpy of every element in its standard state is 0 kJ mol⁻¹, so option (ii) is correct.

193

NCERT Exercise 5.4 — Comparing Combustion Enthalpy and Internal Energy

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Write the balanced combustion reaction:
  2. 2
  3. 3Apply the gas-mole relation and count only gaseous species:
  4. 4
  5. 5Use ΔH° = ΔU° + Δn(gas)RT:
  6. 6
  7. 7Because R, T and X are positive, subtracting RT makes ΔH° more negative than ΔU°.

Final answer

ΔH° = ΔU° − RT, so ΔH° < ΔU° and option (iii) is correct.

194

NCERT Exercise 5.5 — Standard Enthalpy of Formation of Methane

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Write the three combustion equations with their enthalpy changes:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5The target formation equation is:
  6. 6
  7. 7Reverse methane combustion, so its sign changes to +890.3 kJ mol⁻¹, and add the carbon-combustion equation plus twice the dihydrogen-combustion equation.
  8. 8
  9. 9

Final answer

The enthalpy of formation of CH₄(g) is −74.8 kJ mol⁻¹, so option (i) is correct.

195

NCERT Exercise 5.6 — Temperature Dependence of Spontaneity

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Heat on the product side means that the reaction is exothermic, so ΔH is negative; the given entropy change is also positive.
  2. 2Apply the Gibbs-energy criterion:
  3. 3
  4. 4Both terms are unfavourable to a positive result: ΔH is negative and −TΔS is negative for T > 0.
  5. 5
  6. 6Hence the reaction is spontaneous at every positive temperature.

Final answer

The reaction is possible at any temperature, so the corrected fourth option (iv) is correct.

196

NCERT Exercise 5.7 — Internal Energy Change from the First Law

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Apply the first law in the chemistry sign convention:
  2. 2
  3. 3Heat absorbed by the system is positive, but work done by the system is work on the surroundings and therefore w is negative for the system.
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6The positive result means that the internal energy of the system increases.

Final answer

The change in internal energy is ΔU = +307 J.

197

NCERT Exercise 5.8 — Enthalpy Change from a Bomb-Calorimeter Value

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Apply the relation between enthalpy and internal energy:
  2. 2
  3. 3Only gaseous species count toward the change in gaseous amount:
  4. 4
  5. 5Express R in kJ units and substitute:
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8

Final answer

The standard reaction enthalpy at 298 K is ΔH° = −741.5 kJ mol⁻¹.

198

NCERT Exercise 5.9 — Heat Required to Warm Aluminium

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Use the molar form of the heat equation:
  2. 2
  3. 3Convert mass to moles using the molar mass of aluminium, 27.0 g mol⁻¹:
  4. 4
  5. 5A temperature interval in kelvins has the same magnitude as one in degrees Celsius:
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8Convert joules to kilojoules explicitly:
  9. 9

Final answer

The required heat is 1.07 kJ for the 60.0 g sample.

199

NCERT Exercise 5.10 — Enthalpy Change from Water to Ice

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Choose a three-step path: cool liquid water from 10 °C to 0 °C, freeze it at 0 °C, and cool the ice from 0 °C to −10 °C.
  2. 2At constant pressure, the sensible-heat law is q = nCₚΔT. For 1.0 mol, the liquid-cooling contribution is:
  3. 3
  4. 4Freezing is the reverse of fusion, so its enthalpy change is negative:
  5. 5
  6. 6The ice-cooling contribution is:
  7. 7
  8. 8Add the three contributions and convert to kilojoules:
  9. 9

Final answer

The enthalpy change from liquid water at 10 °C to ice at −10 °C is −7.151 kJ mol⁻¹.

200

NCERT Exercise 5.11 — Heat Released in Forming Carbon Dioxide

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Write the formation reaction and use the molar mass of CO₂:
  2. 2
  3. 3Convert the required mass to moles:
  4. 4
  5. 5Multiply the amount formed by the molar enthalpy of formation:
  6. 6
  7. 7The negative enthalpy change means that 314.8 kJ is released; it is not an amount per mole of the 35.2 g sample.

Final answer

Forming 35.2 g of CO₂ releases 314.8 kJ of heat, corresponding to ΔH = −314.8 kJ for the sample.

201

NCERT Exercise 5.12 — Reaction Enthalpy from Formation Enthalpies

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Apply Hess’s formation-enthalpy relation:
  2. 2
  3. 3Insert the stoichiometric coefficients, giving extra weight to each repeated compound:
  4. 4
  5. 5

Final answer

The standard reaction enthalpy is ΔᵣH° = −777.7 kJ mol⁻¹.

202

NCERT Exercise 5.13 — Standard Enthalpy of Formation of Ammonia

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The formation enthalpy is defined for formation of one mole from elements in their standard states.
  2. 2Divide the given reaction and its enthalpy by two:
  3. 3
  4. 4

Final answer

The standard enthalpy of formation of NH₃(g) is −46.2 kJ mol⁻¹.

203

NCERT Exercise 5.14 — Standard Enthalpy of Formation of Methanol

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Write the target formation equation:
  2. 2
  3. 3By Hess’s law, obtain the target as equation (ii) + 2 × equation (iii) − equation (i). Reversing equation (i) changes its sign to +726 kJ mol⁻¹.
  4. 4
  5. 5

Final answer

The standard enthalpy of formation of CH₃OH(l) is −239 kJ mol⁻¹.

204

NCERT Exercise 5.15 — Atomisation Enthalpy and C–Cl Bond Enthalpy

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1List the required enthalpy changes with their signs:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6Atomise carbon and chlorine, condense CCl₄ vapour back to liquid, and reverse the last formation equation so that gaseous CCl₄ remains on the left. The enthalpy is:
  7. 7
  8. 8One CCl₄ molecule contains four C–Cl bonds, so divide the atomisation enthalpy by four:
  9. 9

Final answer

The reaction enthalpy is +1304 kJ mol⁻¹, and the C–Cl bond enthalpy is 326 kJ mol⁻¹.

205

NCERT Exercise 5.16 — Entropy Change of an Isolated System

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1An isolated system exchanges neither matter nor energy with its surroundings, so it is also the whole universe for this process.
  2. 2The second law requires the entropy of an isolated system not to decrease:
  3. 3
  4. 4The inequality is strict for a spontaneous irreversible change; the zero value applies only to an ideal reversible change.

Final answer

For the expected spontaneous change, ΔS is positive; ΔS = 0 only for an ideal reversible change.

206

NCERT Exercise 5.17 — Temperature for a Spontaneous Reaction

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A reaction becomes spontaneous when ΔG becomes negative:
  2. 2
  3. 3First find the equilibrium boundary by setting ΔG equal to zero:
  4. 4
  5. 5Because ΔS is positive, increasing temperature makes −TΔS more negative, so the reaction is spontaneous above this boundary.

Final answer

The reaction is spontaneous for T > 2000 K; at 2000 K it is at equilibrium.

207

NCERT Exercise 5.18 — Signs of ΔH and ΔS during Bond Formation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The reaction forms a covalent bond, and bond formation releases energy.
  2. 2
  3. 3Two moles of gaseous atoms combine to form one mole of gaseous molecules, reducing the number of independently moving particles and the disorder.
  4. 4

Final answer

Both enthalpy and entropy decrease, so ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0.

208

NCERT Exercise 5.19 — Gibbs Energy from ΔU and ΔS

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1First convert ΔU° to ΔH° by counting the change in gaseous amount:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5Convert the entropy change to the same energy unit:
  6. 6
  7. 7Apply the Gibbs-energy equation:
  8. 8
  9. 9

Final answer

ΔG° ≈ +0.16 kJ for the reaction as written, so it is not spontaneous under the stated standard conditions.

209

NCERT Exercise 5.20 — Gibbs Energy from the Equilibrium Constant

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Apply the equilibrium relation:
  2. 2
  3. 3Substitute K = 10, for which ln 10 ≈ 2.303:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6Convert from joules to kilojoules:
  7. 7

Final answer

The standard Gibbs energy change is ΔG° = −5.744 kJ mol⁻¹.

210

NCERT Exercise 5.21 — Thermodynamic Stability of Nitric Oxide

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A positive standard formation enthalpy means that NO(g) lies 90 kJ mol⁻¹ higher in enthalpy than its constituent elements in their standard states.
  2. 2Thus NO is thermodynamically unstable relative to N₂(g) and O₂(g) on the enthalpy criterion.
  3. 3Oxidation of NO to NO₂ is exothermic, so NO₂ is lower in enthalpy than the NO plus O₂ reactants and NO is further stabilised by conversion to NO₂.
  4. 4The signs therefore explain the tendency of NO to undergo further oxidation, although spontaneity in every possible mixture would also require entropy and concentration data.

Final answer

NO(g) is unstable relative to its elements, while its conversion to the lower-enthalpy NO₂(g) is energetically favoured.

211

NCERT Exercise 5.22 — Entropy Change of the Surroundings

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The negative formation enthalpy means that the chemical system releases 286 kJ per mole.
  2. 2The surroundings absorb that heat, so q(surroundings) is positive:
  3. 3
  4. 4For a reservoir at constant temperature, apply the reversible heat-transfer relation:
  5. 5
  6. 6

Final answer

The entropy change of the surroundings is ΔS(surr) = +959.73 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹.

212

Chapter 6 — Equilibrium

Equilibrium unifies two streams of chemistry: the reversible physical and chemical processes governed by equilibrium constants, and the acid–base equilibria that dominate aqueous chemistry. The chapter develops the law of chemical equilibrium, Kc and Kp, their interrelation, Le Chatelier's principle, and the ionic equilibrium toolkit — solubility product, pH, weak-acid and weak-base ionisation, buffers and hydrolysis. Every question below is from the NCERT Class 11 textbook (rationalised edition), worked line by line in the board pattern.

Board pattern

Equilibrium questions are formula-driven: write the balanced equation, then the equilibrium-constant expression, then substitute numbers with units shown. Set up the ICE table explicitly (initial, change, equilibrium) and state your assumption when x is negligible — then verify it after solving. In acid–base work, always relate Ka, Kb, Kh and Kw and remember that a question about solubility product is a question about spatial stoichiometry (how many ions per formula unit). Box the final answer with its unit or its distinction (M, atm, mol L⁻¹).

Work through them in the order of the chapter: law of mass action and equilibrium constants (6.1–6.11), reaction quotients and ICE-table computation (6.12–6.24), Le Chatelier's principle (6.25–6.34), acid–base theory and conjugate pairs (6.35–6.43), H+ concentration and pH of weak acids and bases (6.44–6.57), hydrolysis and buffers (6.58–6.66), and solubility equilibria (6.67–6.73). The list below enumerates the solved exercises included here.

  • \text{Ex 6.2} ~ \text{— K_c for the SO₂, O₂, SO₃ equilibrium}
  • \text{Ex 6.3} ~ \text{— K_p from the volume per cent of iodine atoms}
  • \text{Ex 6.5} ~ \text{— K_c from K_p using K_p = K_c(RT)^{\Delta n}}
  • \text{Ex 6.6} ~ \text{— K_c of the reverse elementary reaction}
  • \text{Ex 6.7} ~ \text{— Why pure liquids and solids are omitted from K_c}
  • \text{Ex 6.10} ~ \text{— K_c at 450 K for the SO₂ oxidation}
  • \text{Ex 6.11} ~ \text{— K_p for 2HI ⇌ H₂ + I₂ from equilibrium pressures}
  • \text{Ex 6.13} ~ \text{— Balanced equation from the given K_c expression}
  • \text{Ex 6.14} ~ \text{— K_c for water–gas shift from 40% reaction}
  • \text{Ex 6.17} ~ \text{— Equilibrium concentration of C₂H₆ from K_p}
  • \text{Ex 6.18} ~ \text{— Esterification: Q_c, K_c and equilibrium reached or not}
  • \text{Ex 6.23} ~ \text{— K_c for C + CO₂ ⇌ 2CO at 1127 K}
  • \text{Ex 6.24} ~ \text{— ΔG° and K_c for formation of NO₂}
  • \text{Ex 6.28} ~ \text{— K_p expression and effect of pressure, temperature and catalyst}
  • \text{Ex 6.30} ~ \text{— K_c of PCl₅ decomposition and its reverse}
  • \text{Ex 6.43} ~ \text{— K_b of conjugate bases of HF, HCOOH and HCN}
  • \text{Ex 6.47} ~ \text{— K_a and pK_a of an organic acid from pH 4.15}
  • \text{Ex 6.50} ~ \text{— pH and pK_a of bromoacetic acid from its degree of ionisation}
  • \text{Ex 6.51} ~ \text{— Ionisation constant and pK_b of codeine}
  • \text{Ex 6.52} ~ \text{— pH, degree of ionisation and K_a of aniline's conjugate acid}
  • \text{Ex 6.60} ~ \text{— K_a and degree of ionisation of cyanic acid}
213

NCERT Exercise 6.1 — Vapour Pressure When the Container Volume Is Suddenly Increased

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) If the volume of the container is suddenly increased, the vapour pressure decreases initially. The amount of vapour remains the same but the volume increases suddenly, so the same amount of vapour is now distributed in a larger volume.
  2. 2(b) The rate of evaporation remains the same initially, because it depends only on temperature and the surface area of the liquid. As volume increases, the density of the vapour phase decreases, so the rate of collisions between vapour particles and the liquid surface falls — hence the rate of condensation decreases initially.
  3. 3(c) When equilibrium is restored, the rate of evaporation again becomes equal to the rate of condensation. Only the volume has changed while temperature is constant, and vapour pressure depends only on temperature, not on volume.
  4. 4The final vapour pressure is therefore equal to the original vapour pressure of the system.

Final answer

(a) Vapour pressure decreases initially (same vapour in a larger volume). (b) Rate of evaporation stays the same; rate of condensation decreases. (c) At the new equilibrium the two rates are equal and the final vapour pressure equals the original vapour pressure.

214

NCERT Exercise 6.2 — K_c for the SO₂, O₂ and SO₃ Equilibrium

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Write the equilibrium constant expression for the reaction:
  2. 2
  3. 3Substitute the given equilibrium concentrations:
  4. 4
  5. 5

Final answer

K_c = 12.23 M⁻¹ (≈ 12.24 M⁻¹).

215

NCERT Exercise 6.3 — K_p from the Volume Per Cent of Iodine Atoms

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Volume per cent of a gas equals its mole fraction, so the atom pressure is 40% of the total pressure:
  2. 2
  3. 3The remaining 60% is molecular iodine:
  4. 4
  5. 5Write K_p, noting that I₂ is reactant and I is product of the forward reaction I₂ ⇌ 2I:
  6. 6
  7. 7

Final answer

K_p = 2.67 × 10⁴ Pa.

216

NCERT Exercise 6.4 — Equilibrium Constant Expressions for Five Reactions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) For 2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl₂(g):
  2. 2
  3. 3(ii) For 2Cu(NO₃)₂(s) ⇌ 2CuO(s) + 4NO₂(g) + O₂(g), pure solids are omitted from the expression:
  4. 4
  5. 5(iii) Pure liquid water, present in excess, is omitted:
  6. 6
  7. 7(iv) The solid Fe(OH)₃ is omitted:
  8. 8
  9. 9(v) Solid I₂ is omitted:
  10. 10

Final answer

(i) K_c = [NO]²[Cl₂]/[NOCl]² (ii) K_c = [NO₂]⁴[O₂] (iii) K_c = [CH₃COOH][C₂H₅OH]/[CH₃COOC₂H₅] (iv) K_c = 1/([Fe³⁺][OH⁻]³) (v) K_c = [IF₅]²/[F₂]⁵.

217

NCERT Exercise 6.5 — K_c from K_p Using K_p = K_c(RT)^Δn

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The relation between K_p and K_c is:
  2. 2
  3. 3(i) For 2NOCl ⇌ 2NO + Cl₂, Δn = 3 − 2 = 1. With R = 0.0831 bar L mol⁻¹ K⁻¹ and T = 500 K:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6(ii) For CaCO₃(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO₂(g), only CO₂ is gaseous, so Δn = 1 − 0 = 1. With T = 1073 K:
  7. 7

Final answer

(i) K_c = 4.33 × 10⁻⁴ (ii) K_c = 1.87.

218

NCERT Exercise 6.6 — K_c of the Reverse Elementary Reaction

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The equilibrium constant of the reverse reaction is the reciprocal of that of the forward reaction:
  2. 2
  3. 3

Final answer

K_c for the reverse reaction = 1.59 × 10⁻¹⁵.

219

NCERT Exercise 6.7 — Why Pure Liquids and Solids Are Omitted from K_c

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The molar concentration of a pure substance is its mass per unit volume divided by its molecular mass:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4At a given temperature the density and molecular mass of a pure solid or liquid are fixed constants. Their ratio is therefore constant and is already absorbed into the equilibrium constant.
  5. 5Hence the molar concentrations of pure liquids and solids need not (and cannot conveniently) appear in the equilibrium constant expression.

Final answer

For a pure liquid or solid, [substance] = density / molecular mass, which is constant at a given temperature and is absorbed into the equilibrium constant; hence pure liquids and solids are omitted from the expression.

220

NCERT Exercise 6.8 — Composition of the N₂ + O₂ ⇌ N₂O Equilibrium Mixture

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Let the concentration of N₂O formed at equilibrium be x mol. Using a 10 L vessel the ICE table reads:
  2. 2Initial: 0.482 mol N₂, 0.933 mol O₂, 0 mol N₂O.
  3. 3At equilibrium: (0.482 − x) mol N₂, (0.933 − x/2) mol O₂, x mol N₂O, giving:
  4. 4
  5. 5Since K_c = 2.0 × 10⁻³⁷ is extremely small, x is negligible relative to the initial amounts of N₂ and O₂:
  6. 6
  7. 7Substitute into the equilibrium constant expression:
  8. 8
  9. 9
  10. 10
  11. 11Concentration of N₂O at equilibrium:
  12. 12

Final answer

[N₂] = 0.0482 M, [O₂] = 0.0933 M, [N₂O] = 6.6 × 10⁻²¹ M (the concentrations of N₂ and O₂ are practically unchanged).

221

NCERT Exercise 6.9 — Equilibrium Amounts of NO and Br₂ from NOBr Formed

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1From the stoichometry, 2 mol of NO produce 2 mol of NOBr, so 0.0518 mol of NOBr is formed from 0.0518 mol of NO.
  2. 22 mol of NOBr require 1 mol of Br₂, so 0.0518 mol of NOBr is formed from 0.0518/2 = 0.0259 mol of Br₂.
  3. 3Amount of NO left at equilibrium:
  4. 4
  5. 5Amount of Br₂ left at equilibrium:
  6. 6

Final answer

At equilibrium, NO = 0.0352 mol and Br₂ = 0.0178 mol.

222

NCERT Exercise 6.10 — K_c at 450 K for the SO₂ Oxidation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For the reaction 2SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2SO₃, the change in the number of moles of gases is:
  2. 2
  3. 3Use the relation K_p = K_c(RT)^Δn, with R = 0.0831 L bar K⁻¹ mol⁻¹ and T = 450 K:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6

Final answer

K_c = 7.48 × 10¹¹ M⁻¹.

223

NCERT Exercise 6.11 — K_p for 2HI ⇌ H₂ + I₂ from Equilibrium Pressures

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The drop in the pressure of HI as it dissociates:
  2. 2
  3. 3From the stoichometry, 2 mol HI give 1 mol H₂ and 1 mol I₂, so the pressure lost by HI produces half of itself in H₂ and I₂:
  4. 4
  5. 5At equilibrium: p_HI = 0.04 atm, p_H₂ = p_I₂ = 0.08 atm. Then,
  6. 6
  7. 7

Final answer

K_p = 4.0.

224

NCERT Exercise 6.12 — Is the N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ Mixture at Equilibrium?

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The given concentrations in the 20 L vessel are:
  2. 2
  3. 3Calculate the reaction quotient Q_c:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6Compare Q_c with K_c = 1.7 × 10². Since Q_c ≠ K_c, the mixture is not at equilibrium.
  7. 7Since Q_c > K_c, the reaction must proceed in the reverse direction to reach equilibrium (the denominator [N₂][H₂]³ must increase).

Final answer

The mixture is not at equilibrium; Q_c = 2.4 × 10³ > K_c = 1.7 × 10², so the net reaction proceeds in the reverse direction.

225

NCERT Exercise 6.13 — Balanced Equation from the Given K_c Expression

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The numerator lists the products (each raised to its coefficient) and the denominator lists the reactants:
  2. 2Products: NH₃ (coefficient 4), O₂ (coefficient 5).
  3. 3Reactants: NO (coefficient 4), H₂O (coefficient 6).
  4. 4Hence the balanced equation is:
  5. 5

Final answer

4NO(g) + 6H₂O(g) ⇌ 4NH₃(g) + 5O₂(g).

226

NCERT Exercise 6.14 — K_c for the Water–Gas Shift from 40% Reaction

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Initial concentrations in the 10 L vessel are [H₂O] = [CO] = 1/10 = 0.1 M; [H₂] = [CO₂] = 0.
  2. 240% of water reacts, so the amount reacting is 0.4 mol; the ICE table becomes (mol per litre):
  3. 3At equilibrium: [H₂O] = (1 − 0.4)/10 = 0.06 M, [CO] = (1 − 0.4)/10 = 0.06 M, [H₂] = 0.4/10 = 0.04 M, [CO₂] = 0.4/10 = 0.04 M.
  4. 4Substitute into the equilibrium constant expression:
  5. 5
  6. 6

Final answer

K_c = 0.444 (approximately).

227

NCERT Exercise 6.15 — [H₂] and [I₂] from HI Dissociation at 700 K

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For the forward reaction H₂ + I₂ ⇌ 2HI, K_c = 54.8. The reverse reaction 2HI ⇌ H₂ + I₂ therefore has:
  2. 2
  3. 3Let the equilibrium concentrations of hydrogen and iodine be x mol L⁻¹ each. Given [HI] = 0.5 mol L⁻¹:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6

Final answer

[H₂] = [I₂] = 0.068 mol L⁻¹.

228

NCERT Exercise 6.16 — Equilibrium Concentrations in the ICl Decomposition

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Let x be the equilibrium concentration of I₂ (and of Cl₂, by stoichometry). The ICE table reads:
  2. 2Initial: [ICl] = 0.78 M, [Cl₂] = [I₂] = 0.
  3. 3At equilibrium: [ICl] = (0.78 − 2x) M, [Cl₂] = x M, [I₂] = x M.
  4. 4Substitute into the equilibrium constant expression:
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8
  9. 9Equilibrium concentrations:
  10. 10

Final answer

[Cl₂] = [I₂] = 0.167 M and [ICl] = 0.446 M.

229

NCERT Exercise 6.17 — Equilibrium Concentration of C₂H₆ from K_p

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Let p be the equilibrium partial pressure of each of ethene and hydrogen gas.
  2. 2Initial pressure of C₂H₆ = 4.0 atm, with p_C₂H₄ = p_H₂ = 0. At equilibrium: p_C₂H₆ = (4.0 − p) atm, p_C₂H₄ = p atm, p_H₂ = p atm.
  3. 3Substitute into the equilibrium constant expression:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7Taking the positive root: p = 0.76/2 = 0.38 atm.
  8. 8Equilibrium pressure (concentration) of C₂H₆:
  9. 9

Final answer

Equilibrium concentration of C₂H₆ = 3.62 atm.

230

NCERT Exercise 6.18 — Esterification: Q_c, K_c and Whether Equilibrium Is Reached

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) Reaction quotient for the reaction:
  2. 2
  3. 3(ii) Let the volume of the mixture be V. The ICE table reads (with x = 0.171 mol of product at equilibrium):
  4. 4At equilibrium: [CH₃COOH] = (1 − 0.171)/V, [C₂H₅OH] = (0.18 − 0.171)/V = 0.009/V, [CH₃COOC₂H₅] = 0.171/V, [H₂O] = 0.171/V.
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7(iii) Now 0.214 mol of ethyl acetate has formed from 1.0 mol acid and 0.5 mol ethanol. The reaction quotient is:
  8. 8
  9. 9
  10. 10Since Q_c (0.204) < K_c (3.92), the reaction has not yet reached equilibrium and more ethyl acetate must still form.

Final answer

(i) Q_c = [CH₃COOC₂H₅][H₂O]/([CH₃COOH][C₂H₅OH]) (ii) K_c = 3.92 (iii) Q_c = 0.204 < K_c, so equilibrium has not been reached.

231

NCERT Exercise 6.19 — [PCl₃] and [Cl₂] at Equilibrium for PCl₅ Decomposition

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Let the equilibrium concentrations of PCl₃ and Cl₂ each be x mol L⁻¹. Given [PCl₅] = 0.5 × 10⁻¹ mol L⁻¹.
  2. 2The equilibrium constant expression gives:
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

Final answer

[PCl₃] = [Cl₂] = 0.02 mol L⁻¹.

232

NCERT Exercise 6.20 — Equilibrium Partial Pressures of CO and CO₂

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1First evaluate the reaction quotient from the initial pressures:
  2. 2
  3. 3Since Q_p = 0.571 > K_p = 0.265, the reaction proceeds in the backward direction: p_CO increases and p_CO₂ decreases.
  4. 4Let p be the increase in CO pressure, which equals the decrease in CO₂ pressure. Then:
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8Equilibrium partial pressures:
  9. 9

Final answer

p_CO₂ = 0.461 atm and p_CO = 1.739 atm.

233

NCERT Exercise 6.21 — Direction of the N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ Reaction

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Calculate the reaction quotient from the given concentrations:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4Compare with K_c = 0.061. Since Q_c ≠ K_c, the reaction is not at equilibrium.
  5. 5Since Q_c < K_c, the numerator must increase; the reaction proceeds in the forward direction to reach equilibrium.

Final answer

The reaction is not at equilibrium (Q_c = 0.0104 ≠ K_c = 0.061); it proceeds in the forward direction.

234

NCERT Exercise 6.22 — Molar Concentration of BrCl at Equilibrium

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Let the amount of bromine (and chlorine, by stoichometry) formed at equilibrium be x. The equilibrium concentrations are:
  2. 2[BrCl] = (3.3 × 10⁻³ − 2x) M, [Br₂] = x M, [Cl₂] = x M.
  3. 3Substitute into the equilibrium constant expression:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8Equilibrium concentration of BrCl:
  9. 9

Final answer

[BrCl] at equilibrium = 3.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹.

235

NCERT Exercise 6.23 — K_c for C + CO₂ ⇌ 2CO at 1127 K

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Take 100 g of the gaseous mixture: mass of CO = 90.55 g and mass of CO₂ = 9.45 g.
  2. 2Number of moles:
  3. 3
  4. 4Partial pressures from mole fractions (total pressure = 1 atm):
  5. 5
  6. 6Then,
  7. 7
  8. 8For this reaction Δn = 2 − 1 = 1. Using K_p = K_c(RT)^Δn with R = 0.082 L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹ and T = 1127 K:
  9. 9

Final answer

K_c = 0.154 (approximately).

236

NCERT Exercise 6.24 — ΔG° and K_c for the Formation of NO₂

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Standard Gibbs energy change of the reaction:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4(b) Relationship between ΔG° and the equilibrium constant:
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7

Final answer

(a) ΔG° = −35.0 kJ mol⁻¹ (b) K_c = 1.36 × 10⁶.

237

NCERT Exercise 6.25 — Effect of Decreased Pressure on Equilibrium Mixtures

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Moles of products increase. Lowering pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the side with more gas molecules; here the products hold more moles of gas (2 mol) than the reactants (1 mol), so the forward reaction proceeds.
  2. 2(b) Moles of products decrease. The products side has fewer gas molecules (0) than the reactants (1 mol CO₂); decreased pressure shifts the equilibrium backwards, consuming product.
  3. 3(c) Moles of products remain the same. Both sides hold 4 mol of gas, so a pressure change has no effect on the extent of reaction.

Final answer

(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain the same.

238

NCERT Exercise 6.26 — Reactions Affected by Increased Pressure and Their Direction

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Increasing the pressure affects a reaction only when the number of moles of gas differs between the two sides. Reactions (ii) has 3 mol gas on each side and is unaffected — all the rest are affected.
  2. 2(iv) 2H₂ + CO ⇌ CH₃OH has 3 mol gas reactant and 1 mol gas product; pressure increases shift it to the side of fewer gas molecules, i.e. the forward direction.
  3. 3(i), (iii), (v) and (vi) each have more moles of gas on the product side than on the reactant side; increased pressure shifts them in the backward direction.

Final answer

Reactions (i), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) are affected by pressure. (iv) shifts forward; (i), (iii), (v) and (vi) shift backward.

239

NCERT Exercise 6.27 — Equilibrium Pressures for HBr Dissociation at 1024 K

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The forward reaction H₂ + Br₂ ⇌ 2HBr has K_p = 1.6 × 10⁵, so the reverse reaction 2HBr ⇌ H₂ + Br₂ has:
  2. 2
  3. 3Let p be the equilibrium pressure of each of H₂ and Br₂. Then p_HBr = (10 − 2p) bar.
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8Equilibrium pressures:
  9. 9

Final answer

p_H₂ = p_Br₂ = 2.49 × 10⁻² bar and p_HBr = 9.95 bar (≈ 10 bar).

240

NCERT Exercise 6.28 — K_p Expression and Effects of Pressure, Temperature and Catalyst

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) The equilibrium constant expression in terms of partial pressures:
  2. 2
  3. 3(b)(i) Increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the side with fewer moles of gas. The reactants hold 2 mol gas, the products 4 mol; by Le Chatelier's principle the reaction shifts in the backward direction, so K_p itself is unchanged but the composition changes.
  4. 4(b)(ii) The reaction is endothermic, so increasing the temperature shifts the equilibrium in the forward direction. K_p increases with temperature.
  5. 5(b)(iii) A catalyst increases the rate of both forward and backward reactions equally and does not affect the value of K_p or the composition; equilibrium is simply reached faster.

Final answer

(a) K_p = p_CO·p_H₂³/(p_CH₄·p_H₂O) (b)(i) shifts backward (ii) shifts forward and K_p increases (iii) no effect on K_p or composition, only faster attainment of equilibrium.

241

NCERT Exercise 6.29 — Effect of Addition or Removal of Reactants and Products

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Adding H₂ increases a reactant concentration; by Le Chatelier's principle the equilibrium shifts in the forward direction.
  2. 2(b) Adding CH₃OH increases a product concentration; the equilibrium shifts in the backward direction.
  3. 3(c) Removing CO decreases a reactant concentration; the equilibrium shifts in the backward direction.
  4. 4(d) Removing CH₃OH decreases a product concentration; the equilibrium shifts in the forward direction.

Final answer

(a) Forward (b) Backward (c) Backward (d) Forward.

242

NCERT Exercise 6.30 — K_c of PCl₅ Decomposition and Its Reverse

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) The equilibrium constant expression:
  2. 2
  3. 3(b) The equilibrium constant of the reverse reaction is the reciprocal:
  4. 4
  5. 5(c)(i) Adding more PCl₅ leaves K_c unchanged because K_c depends only on temperature.
  6. 6(c)(ii) K_c is constant at constant temperature, so increasing the pressure does not change its value.
  7. 7(c)(iii) For an endothermic reaction, the value of K_c increases with an increase in temperature.

Final answer

(a) K_c = [PCl₃][Cl₂]/[PCl₅] (b) K_c' = 120.48 (c)(i) unchanged (ii) unchanged (iii) K_c increases.

243

NCERT Exercise 6.31 — Partial Pressure of H₂ in the Water–Gas Shift Reaction

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Let the equilibrium partial pressure of each of carbon dioxide and hydrogen be p. Then at equilibrium: p_CO = p_H₂O = (4.0 − p) bar and p_CO₂ = p_H₂ = p bar.
  2. 2Substitute into the equilibrium constant expression:
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6

Final answer

Equilibrium partial pressure of H₂ = 3.04 bar.

244

NCERT Exercise 6.32 — Which Reaction Has Appreciable Concentrations of Reactants and Products

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1When K_c lies in the range 10⁻³ to 10³, neither reactants nor products dominate and the reaction has appreciable concentrations of both.
  2. 2(a) K_c = 5 × 10⁻³⁹ is extremely small — products are negligible.
  3. 3(b) K_c = 3.7 × 10⁸ is extremely large — reactants are negligible.
  4. 4(c) K_c = 1.8 lies within 10⁻³ to 10³, so this reaction has appreciable concentrations of reactants and products.

Final answer

Only reaction (c), K_c = 1.8, will have appreciable concentrations of reactants and products.

245

NCERT Exercise 6.33 — Equilibrium Concentration of O₃ in Air

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The equilibrium constant expression is:
  2. 2
  3. 3Substitute K_c = 2.0 × 10⁻⁵⁰ and [O₂] = 1.6 × 10⁻²:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6

Final answer

[O₃] = 2.86 × 10⁻²⁸ mol L⁻¹.

246

NCERT Exercise 6.34 — Concentration of CH₄ in the Methanation Equilibrium

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Let the equilibrium concentration of methane be x. In the 1 L flask the other concentrations are [CO] = 0.30 M, [H₂] = 0.10 M and [H₂O] = 0.02 M.
  2. 2Substitute into the equilibrium constant expression:
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

Final answer

[CH₄] at equilibrium = 5.85 × 10⁻² M.

247

NCERT Exercise 6.35 — Conjugate Acid–Base Pairs for Seven Species

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A conjugate acid–base pair is a pair of species that differ only by one proton (H⁺).
  2. 2When the species gains a proton it acts as a base, giving its conjugate acid; when it loses a proton it acts as an acid, giving its conjugate base.
  3. 3The pairs are tabulated below: HNO₂ and NO₂⁻ (base); CN⁻ and HCN (acid); HClO₄ and ClO₄⁻ (base); F⁻ and HF (acid); OH⁻ with H₂O (acid)/O²⁻ (base); CO₃²⁻ and HCO₃⁻ (acid); S²⁻ and HS⁻ (acid).

Final answer

HNO₂ → NO₂⁻ (base); CN⁻ → HCN (acid); HClO₄ → ClO₄⁻ (base); F⁻ → HF (acid); OH⁻ → H₂O (acid) or O²⁻ (base); CO₃²⁻ → HCO₃⁻ (acid); S²⁻ → HS⁻ (acid).

248

NCERT Exercise 6.36 — Which Species Are Lewis Acids

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Lewis acids are species that can accept a pair of electrons.
  2. 2H₂O has lone pairs and acts as a Lewis base; NH₄⁺ has no vacant orbital that accepts an electron pair in this context.
  3. 3BF₃ has an incomplete octet and accepts an electron pair; H⁺ is an electron-pair acceptor.
  4. 4Hence BF₃ and H⁺ are Lewis acids.

Final answer

BF₃ and H⁺ are the Lewis acids among the given species.

249

NCERT Exercise 6.37 — Conjugate Bases of the Brønsted Acids HF, H₂SO₄ and HCO₃⁻

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The conjugate base of an acid is the species formed when the acid loses one proton.
  2. 2HF loses H⁺ to give F⁻.
  3. 3H₂SO₄ loses H⁺ to give HSO₄⁻.
  4. 4HCO₃⁻ loses H⁺ to give CO₃²⁻.

Final answer

HF → F⁻; H₂SO₄ → HSO₄⁻; HCO₃⁻ → CO₃²⁻.

250

NCERT Exercise 6.38 — Conjugate Acids of the Brønsted Bases NH₂⁻, NH₃ and HCOO⁻

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The conjugate acid of a base is the species formed when the base gains one proton.
  2. 2NH₂⁻ gains H⁺ to give NH₃.
  3. 3NH₃ gains H⁺ to give NH₄⁺.
  4. 4HCOO⁻ gains H⁺ to give HCOOH.

Final answer

NH₂⁻ → NH₃; NH₃ → NH₄⁺; HCOO⁻ → HCOOH.

251

NCERT Exercise 6.39 — Amphiprotic Species and Their Conjugate Acid and Base

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A species that is amphiprotic gains a proton (acting as a base, giving a conjugate acid) or loses a proton (acting as an acid, giving a conjugate base).
  2. 2H₂O: conjugate acid H₃O⁺, conjugate base OH⁻.
  3. 3HCO₃⁻: conjugate acid H₂CO₃, conjugate base CO₃²⁻.
  4. 4HSO₄⁻: conjugate acid H₂SO₄, conjugate base SO₄²⁻.
  5. 5NH₃: conjugate acid NH₄⁺, conjugate base NH₂⁻.

Final answer

H₂O: H₃O⁺/OH⁻; HCO₃⁻: H₂CO₃/CO₃²⁻; HSO₄⁻: H₂SO₄/SO₄²⁻; NH₃: NH₄⁺/NH₂⁻.

252

NCERT Exercise 6.40 — Classifying OH⁻, F⁻, H⁺ and BCl₃ as Lewis Acids or Bases

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) OH⁻ is a Lewis base because it can donate its lone pair of electrons.
  2. 2(b) F⁻ is a Lewis base because it can donate a pair of electrons.
  3. 3(c) H⁺ is a Lewis acid because it can accept a pair of electrons.
  4. 4(d) BCl₃ is a Lewis acid because boron has an incomplete octet and can accept a pair of electrons.

Final answer

Lewis bases: OH⁻ and F⁻ (donate electron pairs); Lewis acids: H⁺ and BCl₃ (accept electron pairs).

253

NCERT Exercise 6.41 — pH of a Soft Drink from [H⁺] = 3.8 × 10⁻³ M

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Given [H⁺] = 3.8 × 10⁻³ M.
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Final answer

pH of the soft drink = 2.42.

254

NCERT Exercise 6.42 — [H⁺] of Vinegar from Its pH 3.76

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Given pH = 3.76.
  2. 2
  3. 3

Final answer

[H⁺] in the vinegar sample = 1.74 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹.

255

NCERT Exercise 6.43 — K_b of the Conjugate Bases of HF, HCOOH and HCN

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For a conjugate acid–base pair, K_a × K_b = K_w, so:
  2. 2
  3. 3For HF (K_a = 6.8 × 10⁻⁴), the conjugate base F⁻ has:
  4. 4
  5. 5For HCOOH (K_a = 1.8 × 10⁻⁴), the conjugate base HCOO⁻ has:
  6. 6
  7. 7For HCN (K_a = 4.8 × 10⁻⁹), the conjugate base CN⁻ has:
  8. 8

Final answer

K_b(F⁻) = 1.5 × 10⁻¹¹, K_b(HCOO⁻) = 5.6 × 10⁻¹¹ and K_b(CN⁻) = 2.08 × 10⁻⁶.

256

NCERT Exercise 6.44 — Phenolate Ion and Degree of Ionisation of Phenol

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Ionisation of phenol: C₆H₅OH + H₂O ⇌ C₆H₅O⁻ + H₃O⁺.
  2. 2Initial: 0.05 M phenol, 0 of the ions. At equilibrium: (0.05 − x) M phenol, x M C₆H₅O⁻, x M H₃O⁺.
  3. 3
  4. 4K_a is very small so x is negligible next to 0.05:
  5. 5
  6. 6Since [H₃O⁺] = [C₆H₅O⁻]:
  7. 7
  8. 8Now with 0.01 M sodium phenolate present, common-ion effect suppresses the ionisation. Writing the equilibrium with α as the degree of ionisation: [C₆H₅OH] ≈ 0.05 M, [C₆H₅O⁻] ≈ 0.01 M, [H₃O⁺] = 0.05α.
  9. 9
  10. 10

Final answer

In 0.05 M phenol, [C₆H₅O⁻] = 2.2 × 10⁻⁶ M. In the presence of 0.01 M sodium phenolate the degree of ionisation falls to 1 × 10⁻⁸.

257

NCERT Exercise 6.45 — [HS⁻] and [S²⁻] in 0.1 M H₂S, With and Without HCl

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(i) First ionisation H₂S ⇌ H⁺ + HS⁻. Case I (in the absence of HCl): let [HS⁻] = x.
  2. 2
  3. 3Since K_{a1} is small, take 0.1 − x ≈ 0.1:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6Case II (in the presence of 0.1 M HCl): [H⁺] ≈ 0.1 M supplied by HCl. With y = [HS⁻]:
  7. 7
  8. 8
  9. 9(ii) Second ionisation HS⁻ ⇌ H⁺ + S²⁻. Case I (no HCl): [H⁺] = [HS⁻] = 9.54 × 10⁻⁵ M, and with [S²⁻] = X:
  10. 10
  11. 11
  12. 12Case II (0.1 M HCl): [HS⁻] = 9.1 × 10⁻⁸ M and [H⁺] = 0.1 M. With [S²⁻] = X′:
  13. 13
  14. 14

Final answer

[HS⁻] = 9.54 × 10⁻⁵ M without HCl, falling to 9.1 × 10⁻⁸ M in 0.1 M HCl. [S²⁻] = 1.2 × 10⁻¹³ M without HCl and 1.092 × 10⁻¹⁹ M in 0.1 M HCl.

258

NCERT Exercise 6.46 — Degree of Dissociation of 0.05 M Acetic Acid and Its pH

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1CH₃COOH ⇌ CH₃COO⁻ + H⁺ with K_a = 1.74 × 10⁻⁵. Since K_a ≫ K_w, the water equilibrium is negligible.
  2. 2For a weak acid, with α the degree of dissociation:
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5Concentration of acetate ion:
  6. 6
  7. 7Since [CH₃COO⁻] = [H⁺]:
  8. 8

Final answer

α = 1.86 × 10⁻², [CH₃COO⁻] = 9.3 × 10⁻⁴ M and pH = 3.03.

259

NCERT Exercise 6.47 — K_a and pK_a of an Organic Acid from pH 4.15

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Let the organic acid be HA, which ionises as HA ⇌ H⁺ + A⁻. Concentration of HA = 0.01 M.
  2. 2Given pH = 4.15, the hydrogen ion concentration is:
  3. 3
  4. 4The equilibrium constant is:
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7Then:
  8. 8

Final answer

[A⁻] = 7.08 × 10⁻⁵ M, K_a = 5.01 × 10⁻⁷ and pK_a = 6.30.

260

NCERT Exercise 6.48 — pH of HCl, NaOH, HBr and KOH Solutions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) 0.003 M HCl: HCl is completely ionised, so [H₃O⁺] = 0.003 M.
  2. 2
  3. 3(b) 0.005 M NaOH: [OH⁻] = 0.005 M.
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6(c) 0.002 M HBr: [H₃O⁺] = 0.002 M.
  7. 7
  8. 8(d) 0.002 M KOH: [OH⁻] = 0.002 M.
  9. 9
  10. 10

Final answer

(a) 2.52 (b) 11.70 (c) 2.69 (d) 11.31.

261

NCERT Exercise 6.49 — pH of TlOH, Ca(OH)₂, NaOH and Diluted HCl Solutions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Concentration of TlOH (molar mass 221 g mol⁻¹):
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5(b) Molar mass of Ca(OH)₂ is 74 g mol⁻¹:
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8
  9. 9(c) Molar mass of NaOH is 40 g mol⁻¹:
  10. 10
  11. 11
  12. 12(d) Diluting 1 mL of 13.6 M HCl to 1 L: M₁V₁ = M₂V₂.
  13. 13
  14. 14

Final answer

(a) 11.65 (b) 12.21 (c) 12.57 (d) 1.87.

262

NCERT Exercise 6.50 — pH and pK_a of Bromoacetic Acid from Its Degree of Ionisation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Degree of ionisation α = 0.132 and concentration c = 0.1 M. The hydrogen ion concentration is:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4The ionisation constant is:
  5. 5
  6. 6

Final answer

pH = 1.88 and pK_a ≈ 2.76.

263

NCERT Exercise 6.51 — Ionisation Constant and pK_b of Codeine

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Given c = 0.005 M and pH = 9.95:
  2. 2
  3. 3Since [OH⁻] = cα:
  4. 4
  5. 5Ionisation constant of the base:
  6. 6
  7. 7

Final answer

K_b = 1.58 × 10⁻⁶ and pK_b = 5.80.

264

NCERT Exercise 6.52 — pH, Degree of Ionisation and K_a of Aniline's Conjugate Acid

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For aniline, K_b = 4.27 × 10⁻¹⁰ (from Table 6.7) and c = 0.001 M.
  2. 2
  3. 3Concentration of the anion (hydroxide from the ionisation):
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7Ionisation constant of the conjugate acid from K_a × K_b = K_w:
  8. 8

Final answer

pH = 7.81, α = 6.53 × 10⁻⁴ and K_a of the conjugate acid = 2.34 × 10⁻⁵.

265

NCERT Exercise 6.53 — Degree of Ionisation of Acetic Acid with Added HCl

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1With c = 0.05 M and pK_a = 4.74:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4Adding HCl increases [H⁺] and, by the common-ion effect, suppresses the dissociation of acetic acid.
  5. 5(a) With 0.01 M HCl: [H⁺] ≈ 0.01 M. Let x = [CH₃COO⁻], the amount dissociated:
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8(b) With 0.1 M HCl: [H⁺] ≈ 0.1 M.
  9. 9
  10. 10

Final answer

α = 1.91 × 10⁻² in pure water; it falls to 1.82 × 10⁻³ in 0.01 M HCl and to 1.82 × 10⁻⁴ in 0.1 M HCl.

266

NCERT Exercise 6.54 — Degree of Ionisation of Dimethylamine in Water and NaOH

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1With K_b = 5.4 × 10⁻⁴ and c = 0.02 M:
  2. 2
  3. 3With 0.1 M NaOH present, [OH⁻] is dominated by the strong base, so [OH⁻] ≈ 0.1 M. Let x = [(CH₃)₂NH₂⁺]:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6Degree of ionisation in the presence of NaOH:
  7. 7

Final answer

α = 0.1643 in water; in 0.1 M NaOH only 0.54% of dimethylamine is ionised.

267

NCERT Exercise 6.55 — [H⁺] in Muscle, Stomach, Blood and Saliva Fluids

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Use [H⁺] = 10⁻ᵖᴴ in each case.
  2. 2(a) Muscle fluid, pH 6.83:
  3. 3
  4. 4(b) Stomach fluid, pH 1.2:
  5. 5
  6. 6(c) Blood, pH 7.38:
  7. 7
  8. 8(d) Saliva, pH 6.4:
  9. 9

Final answer

(a) 1.48 × 10⁻⁷ M (b) 0.063 M (c) 4.17 × 10⁻⁸ M (d) 3.98 × 10⁻⁷ M.

268

NCERT Exercise 6.56 — [H⁺] of Milk, Coffee, Tomato, Lemon and Egg White

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Use [H⁺] = 10⁻ᵖᴴ for each item.
  2. 2Milk, pH 6.8:
  3. 3
  4. 4Black coffee, pH 5.0:
  5. 5
  6. 6Tomato juice, pH 4.2:
  7. 7
  8. 8Lemon juice, pH 2.2:
  9. 9
  10. 10Egg white, pH 7.8:
  11. 11

Final answer

Milk 1.5 × 10⁻⁷ M, black coffee 10⁻⁵ M, tomato juice 6.31 × 10⁻⁵ M, lemon juice 6.31 × 10⁻³ M, egg white 1.58 × 10⁻⁸ M.

269

NCERT Exercise 6.57 — Concentrations and pH of a KOH Solution

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Molar mass of KOH is 56.11 g mol⁻¹. Concentration of KOH in 200 mL:
  2. 2
  3. 3KOH ionises completely as KOH → K⁺ + OH⁻, so:
  4. 4
  5. 5Hydrogen ion concentration from the ionic product of water:
  6. 6
  7. 7

Final answer

[K⁺] = [OH⁻] = 0.05 M, [H⁺] = 2 × 10⁻¹³ M and pH = 12.70.

270

NCERT Exercise 6.58 — Ionic Concentrations and pH of Saturated Sr(OH)₂

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Molar mass of Sr(OH)₂ is 121.63 g mol⁻¹. Its molar solubility is:
  2. 2
  3. 3Dissociation Sr(OH)₂ → Sr²⁺ + 2OH⁻ gives:
  4. 4
  5. 5Hydrogen ion concentration:
  6. 6
  7. 7

Final answer

[Sr²⁺] = 0.1581 M, [OH⁻] = 0.3126 M and pH = 13.50.

271

NCERT Exercise 6.59 — Degree of Ionisation and pH of Propanoic Acid

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Represent propanoic acid as HA with K_a = 1.32 × 10⁻⁵ and c = 0.05 M.
  2. 2
  3. 3Hydrogen ion concentration and pH:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6With 0.01 M HCl, [H₃O⁺] ≈ 0.01 M. Let α′ be the new degree of ionisation with [A⁻] = 0.05α′:
  7. 7
  8. 8

Final answer

α = 1.63 × 10⁻² and pH = 3.09 in water; in 0.01 M HCl the degree of ionisation falls to 1.32 × 10⁻³.

272

NCERT Exercise 6.60 — K_a and Degree of Ionisation of Cyanic Acid

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Given c = 0.1 M and pH = 2.34:
  2. 2
  3. 3Since [H⁺] = cα:
  4. 4
  5. 5The ionisation constant is:
  6. 6

Final answer

K_a = 2.02 × 10⁻⁴ and α = 0.045.

273

NCERT Exercise 6.61 — pH and Degree of Hydrolysis of Sodium Nitrite

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1NaNO₂ is the salt of a strong base (NaOH) and a weak acid (HNO₂); it hydrolyses as NO₂⁻ + H₂O ⇌ HNO₂ + OH⁻.
  2. 2
  3. 3Let x be the concentration hydrolysed. Then [NO₂⁻] ≈ 0.04 M, [HNO₂] = x, [OH⁻] = x:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8Degree of hydrolysis:
  9. 9

Final answer

pH = 7.97 and degree of hydrolysis = 2.35 × 10⁻⁵.

274

NCERT Exercise 6.62 — Ionisation Constant of Pyridine from Pyridinium Hydrochloride

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Pyridinium hydrochloride, C₅H₅NH⁺Cl⁻, is the salt of a weak base (pyridine) and a strong acid (HCl). It hydrolyses to give H⁺.
  2. 2From pH = 3.44:
  3. 3
  4. 4Hydrolysis constant of the salt (c = 0.02 M):
  5. 5
  6. 6For the salt of a weak base and strong acid, K_h = K_w/K_b, so the ionisation constant of pyridine is:
  7. 7

Final answer

Ionisation constant of pyridine, K_b = 1.52 × 10⁻⁹ (≈ 1.5 × 10⁻⁹).

275

NCERT Exercise 6.63 — Predicting Neutral, Acidic or Basic Salt Solutions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A salt of a strong acid and a strong base gives a neutral solution; a salt of a strong base and a weak acid is basic; a salt of a weak base and a strong acid is acidic.
  2. 2(i) NaCl: salt of strong base NaOH and strong acid HCl → neutral.
  3. 3(ii) KBr: salt of strong base KOH and strong acid HBr → neutral.
  4. 4(iii) NaCN: salt of strong base NaOH and weak acid HCN → basic.
  5. 5(iv) NH₄NO₃: salt of weak base NH₄OH and strong acid HNO₃ → acidic.
  6. 6(v) NaNO₂: salt of strong base NaOH and weak acid HNO₂ → basic.
  7. 7(vi) KF: salt of strong base KOH and weak acid HF → basic.

Final answer

NaCl and KBr neutral; NaCN, NaNO₂ and KF basic; NH₄NO₃ acidic.

276

NCERT Exercise 6.64 — pH of Chloroacetic Acid and Its Sodium Salt

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For 0.1 M ClCH₂COOH with K_a = 1.35 × 10⁻³:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5ClCH₂COONa, the salt of a weak acid and a strong base, hydrolyses: ClCH₂COO⁻ + H₂O ⇌ ClCH₂COOH + OH⁻.
  6. 6
  7. 7Let x = [OH⁻] = [ClCH₂COOH] with the salt at 0.1 M:
  8. 8
  9. 9

Final answer

pH of 0.1 M chloroacetic acid = 1.94 and pH of its 0.1 M sodium salt = 7.94.

277

NCERT Exercise 6.65 — pH of Neutral Water at 310 K

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For neutral water [H⁺] = [OH⁻], so K_w = x² with x = [H⁺].
  2. 2
  3. 3

Final answer

The pH of neutral water at 310 K is 6.78 (pH is no longer 7 because K_w is larger than 10⁻¹⁴).

278

NCERT Exercise 6.66 — pH of Acid–Base Mixture Solutions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Moles of H₃O⁺ from HCl:
  2. 2
  3. 3Moles of OH⁻ from Ca(OH)₂ (two OH⁻ per formula unit):
  4. 4
  5. 5Excess OH⁻ = 0.0040 − 0.0025 = 0.0015 mol in a total volume of 35 mL:
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8(b) Moles of H₃O⁺ from H₂SO₄ (two H⁺ per formula unit):
  9. 9
  10. 10Moles of OH⁻ from Ca(OH)₂:
  11. 11
  12. 12The acid and base exactly neutralise each other, so the solution is neutral:
  13. 13
  14. 14(c) Moles of H₃O⁺ from H₂SO₄:
  15. 15
  16. 16Moles of OH⁻ from KOH:
  17. 17
  18. 18Excess H₃O⁺ = 0.001 mol in 20 mL:
  19. 19
  20. 20

Final answer

(a) pH = 12.63 (b) pH = 7 (c) pH = 1.30.

279

NCERT Exercise 6.67 — Solubilities and Ionic Molarities for Five Sparingly Soluble Salts

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(1) Silver chromate, Ag₂CrO₄ (K_sₚ = 1.1 × 10⁻¹²):Ag₂CrO₄ → 2Ag⁺ + CrO₄²⁻
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5(2) Barium chromate, BaCrO₄ (K_sₚ = 1.2 × 10⁻¹⁰):BaCrO₄ → Ba²⁺ + CrO₄²⁻
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8(3) Ferric hydroxide, Fe(OH)₃ (K_sₚ = 1.0 × 10⁻³⁸):Fe(OH)₃ → Fe³⁺ + 3OH⁻
  9. 9
  10. 10
  11. 11
  12. 12(4) Lead chloride, PbCl₂ (K_sₚ = 1.6 × 10⁻⁵):PbCl₂ → Pb²⁺ + 2Cl⁻
  13. 13
  14. 14
  15. 15
  16. 16(5) Mercurous iodide, Hg₂I₂ (K_sₚ = 4.5 × 10⁻²⁹):Hg₂I₂ → Hg₂²⁺ + 2I⁻
  17. 17
  18. 18
  19. 19

Final answer

Ag₂CrO₄: s = 0.65 × 10⁻⁴ M, [Ag⁺] = 1.30 × 10⁻⁴ M, [CrO₄²⁻] = 0.65 × 10⁻⁴ M. BaCrO₄: s = 1.09 × 10⁻⁵ M, both ions 1.09 × 10⁻⁵ M. Fe(OH)₃: s = 1.39 × 10⁻¹⁰ M, [Fe³⁺] = 1.39 × 10⁻¹⁰ M, [OH⁻] = 4.16 × 10⁻¹⁰ M. PbCl₂: s = 1.58 × 10⁻² M, [Pb²⁺] = 1.58 × 10⁻² M, [Cl⁻] = 3.17 × 10⁻² M. Hg₂I₂: s = 2.24 × 10⁻¹⁰ M, [Hg₂²⁺] = 2.24 × 10⁻¹⁰ M, [I⁻] = 4.48 × 10⁻¹⁰ M.

280

NCERT Exercise 6.68 — Ratio of Molarities of Saturated Ag₂CrO₄ and AgBr

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For Ag₂CrO₄, let the solubility be s: Ag₂CrO₄ ⇌ 2Ag⁺ + CrO₄²⁻.
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4For AgBr, let the solubility be s′: AgBr(s) ⇌ Ag⁺ + Br⁻.
  5. 5
  6. 6Ratio of the molarities of the saturated solutions:
  7. 7

Final answer

The ratio of the molarities of the saturated solutions = 91.9.

281

NCERT Exercise 6.69 — Will Copper Iodate Precipitate on Mixing?

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Mixing equal volumes halves every concentration: [IO₃⁻] = 0.001 M and [Cu²⁺] = 0.001 M.
  2. 2The solubility equilibrium for copper iodate is Cu(IO₃)₂ → Cu²⁺(aq) + 2IO₃⁻(aq), whose ionic product is:
  3. 3
  4. 4Comparing with K_sₚ = 7.4 × 10⁻⁸, the ionic product is less than the solubility product.
  5. 5Since IP < K_sₚ, precipitation of copper iodate will not occur.

Final answer

Ionic product = 1 × 10⁻⁹ < K_sp = 7.4 × 10⁻⁸, so precipitation will not occur.

282

NCERT Exercise 6.70 — Solubility of Silver Benzoate in a pH 3.19 Buffer

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Given pH = 3.19, the buffer's hydrogen ion concentration is:
  2. 2
  3. 3For benzoic acid (K_a = 6.46 × 10⁻⁵):
  4. 4
  5. 5Let x be the solubility of C₆H₅COOAg in the buffer. Then [Ag⁺] = x and the benzoate material balance gives [C₆H₅COOH] + [C₆H₅COO⁻] = x, i.e. 10[C₆H₅COO⁻] + [C₆H₅COO⁻] = x, so [C₆H₅COO⁻] = x/11.
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8In pure water, with solubility x′, [Ag⁺] = [C₆H₅COO⁻] = x′:
  9. 9
  10. 10Ratio of the solubilities:
  11. 11

Final answer

Silver benzoate is about 3.3 times more soluble in the pH 3.19 buffer than in pure water.

283

NCERT Exercise 6.71 — Maximum Concentration Against FeS Precipitation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Let the maximum concentration of each solution be x mol L⁻¹. Mixing equal volumes halves each concentration to x/2.
  2. 2
  3. 3The two give [Fe²⁺] = [S²⁻] = x/2 M.
  4. 4For FeS(s) ⇌ Fe²⁺(aq) + S²⁻(aq), precipitation begins when the ionic product equals K_sp:
  5. 5
  6. 6

Final answer

If each solution has a concentration equal to or less than 5.02 × 10⁻⁹ M, no precipitation of iron sulphide will occur.

284

NCERT Exercise 6.72 — Minimum Volume of Water to Dissolve 1 g of CaSO₄

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For CaSO₄(s) ⇌ Ca²⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) with solubility s:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4Molecular mass of CaSO₄ = 136 g mol⁻¹, so the solubility in g/L is:
  5. 5
  6. 6Thus 1 L of water dissolves 0.41 g of CaSO₄. Water needed to dissolve 1 g:
  7. 7

Final answer

The minimum volume of water required is 2.44 L.

285

NCERT Exercise 6.73 — Precipitation by Sulphide Ion Among M²⁺ Solutions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Precipitation occurs only when the ionic product of the metal sulphide exceeds its K_sp value.
  2. 2After mixing 10 mL with 5 mL, the total volume is 15 mL. The diluted concentrations are:
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5The ionic product for a metal sulphide MS(s) ⇌ M²⁺ + S²⁻ is:
  6. 6
  7. 7This ionic product (≈ 10⁻²²) exceeds the solubility products of ZnS and CdS (both about 10⁻²⁴–10⁻²⁹) but is far below those of FeS (6.3 × 10⁻¹⁸) and MnS (2.5 × 10⁻¹³).

Final answer

Precipitation will take place in the ZnCl₂ and CdCl₂ solutions (the ionic product 8.89 × 10⁻²² exceeds the K_sp of ZnS and CdS), and not in FeSO₄ or MnCl₂.

286

Chapter 7 — Redox Reactions

Redox reactions are changes in which electrons are transferred, so the oxidation number of at least one element increases while that of another decreases. This chapter develops a reliable method for assigning oxidation numbers, identifying oxidising and reducing agents, balancing reactions by the oxidation-number or ion-electron methods, and interpreting electrode potentials and electrolysis.

Board pattern

Assign oxidation numbers first. Increase in oxidation number means oxidation and identifies the reducing agent; decrease means reduction and identifies the oxidising agent. For balancing, use half-reactions and do not multiply electrode potentials by stoichiometric coefficients. For numerical work, write the balanced equation, identify the limiting reagent, and finish with the unit.

The sequence moves from oxidation-number assignment and qualitative redox reasoning in Exercises 7.1–7.11, through reaction identification and balancing in Exercises 7.12–7.24, and ends with quantitative yield, electrode-potential and electrolysis problems in Exercises 7.25–7.30.

287

NCERT Exercise 7.1 — Oxidation Numbers in Compounds

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For a neutral species, the algebraic sum of oxidation numbers is zero. For an ion, it equals the charge on the ion. In ordinary oxides oxygen is −2, while hydrogen is +1 except in metal hydrides.
  2. 2(a) In NaH₂PO₄, let the oxidation number of P be x. Na is +1, H is +1 and O is −2:
  3. 3
  4. 4Thus the underlined P has oxidation number +5.
  5. 5(b) In NaHSO₄, let the oxidation number of S be x:
  6. 6
  7. 7Thus S has oxidation number +6.
  8. 8(c) In H₄P₂O₇, let the oxidation number of P be x:
  9. 9
  10. 10Each P has oxidation number +5.
  11. 11(d) In K₂MnO₄, let the oxidation number of Mn be x:
  12. 12
  13. 13Thus Mn has oxidation number +6.
  14. 14(e) CaO₂ is a peroxide, so each O is −1 rather than −2:
  15. 15
  16. 16Thus the underlined O has oxidation number −1.
  17. 17(f) In NaBH₄, H is −1 in the metal hydride and B has oxidation number x:
  18. 18
  19. 19Thus B has oxidation number +3.
  20. 20(g) In H₂S₂O₇, let the oxidation number of S be x:
  21. 21
  22. 22Each S has oxidation number +6.
  23. 23(h) The twelve waters of crystallisation are neutral. For the sulphate part of KAl(SO₄)₂, let the oxidation number of S be x:
  24. 24
  25. 25Thus each S has oxidation number +6.

Final answer

(a) P = +5; (b) S = +6; (c) P = +5; (d) Mn = +6; (e) O = −1; (f) B = +3; (g) S = +6; (h) S = +6.

288

NCERT Exercise 7.2 — Average and Individual Oxidation States

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The charge-balance equation gives an average value. A fractional average signals that the atoms are not all in the same chemical environment.
  2. 2(a) In KI₃, K is +1, so the average oxidation number of iodine is −1/3. The triiodide ion is I⁻–I–I (more precisely I⁻–I₂), giving one I at −1 and two I atoms at 0.
  3. 3Thus the average is −1/3, but the individual oxidation states are −1, 0 and 0.
  4. 4(b) In H₂S₄O₆, let the average oxidation number of S be x:
  5. 5
  6. 6The tetrathionate structure has two terminal S atoms at +5 and two inner S atoms at 0, so the average is (+5 + 0 + 0 + 5)/4 = +2.5.
  7. 7(c) In Fe₃O₄, the average oxidation number of Fe is +8/3. Magnetite is represented as FeO·Fe₂O₃, so one Fe is +2 and two Fe atoms are +3.
  8. 8(d) In CH₃CH₂OH, the average carbon oxidation number is −2. The methyl carbon is −3 and the carbon bonded to oxygen is −1.
  9. 9(e) In CH₃COOH, the average carbon oxidation number is 0. The methyl carbon is −3 and the carboxyl carbon is +3.
  10. 10The important distinction is that an average oxidation number is not necessarily the oxidation number of any individual atom.

Final answer

(a) I: −1, 0, 0 (average −1/3); (b) S: +5, +5, 0, 0 (average +2.5); (c) Fe: +2, +3, +3 (average +8/3); (d) C: −3 and −1 (average −2); (e) C: −3 and +3 (average 0).

289

NCERT Exercise 7.3 — Identifying Redox Reactions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Cu changes from +2 in CuO to 0 in Cu, so it is reduced. H changes from 0 in H₂ to +1 in H₂O, so it is oxidised.
  2. 2(b) Fe changes from +3 in Fe₂O₃ to 0 in Fe, so it is reduced. C changes from +2 in CO to +4 in CO₂, so it is oxidised.
  3. 3(c) Using the oxidation-number convention intended for this exercise, B changes from +3 in BCl₃ to −3 in B₂H₆, while H changes from −1 in LiAlH₄ to +1 in B₂H₆. BCl₃ is reduced and LiAlH₄ is oxidised.
  4. 4(d) K changes from 0 to +1, so K is oxidised. F changes from 0 to −1, so F is reduced.
  5. 5(e) N changes from −3 in NH₃ to +2 in NO, so N is oxidised. O changes from 0 in O₂ to −2 in H₂O, so O is reduced.
  6. 6In every case at least one oxidation number increases and another decreases; therefore each reaction is redox.

Final answer

All five reactions are redox because they contain simultaneous oxidation and reduction.

290

NCERT Exercise 7.4 — Disproportionation of Fluorine

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In F₂, fluorine has oxidation number 0. In HF, F is −1, so one fluorine atom is reduced.
  2. 2In HOF, H is +1 and O is −2. Since the molecule is neutral, F is +1, so the other fluorine atom is oxidised.
  3. 3The same element in the reactant undergoes both reduction and oxidation, so the reaction is a disproportionation reaction of fluorine.
  4. 4

Final answer

Fluorine disproportionates: F(0) → F(−1) in HF and F(0) → F(+1) in HOF.

291

NCERT Exercise 7.5 — Oxidation Numbers and Structures

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1H₂SO₅ is peroxymonosulphuric acid with the structure H–O–S(=O)₂–O–O–H. The two O atoms in the O–O peroxide linkage are −1, the other three O atoms are −2, H is +1, and S is +6.
  2. 2Check for H₂SO₅: the two H atoms contribute +2, the three ordinary O atoms contribute −6 and the two peroxide O atoms contribute −2. Therefore 2 − 6 − 2 + S = 0, giving S = +6.
  3. 3Cr₂O₇²⁻: 2x + 7(−2) = −2, so x = +6 for each Cr. The ion has an O₃Cr–O–CrO₃ structure with two tetrahedral CrO₄ units joined through oxygen.
  4. 4NO₃⁻: x + 3(−2) = −1, so x = +5 for N. Nitrate is trigonal planar and resonance-delocalised over the three N–O bonds.
  5. 5The fallacy is treating every oxygen as −2. A peroxide O–O bond gives −1 to each oxygen, even in an oxyacid; this is why H₂SO₅ must not be assigned S = +8.

Final answer

S in H₂SO₅ = +6; Cr in Cr₂O₇²⁻ = +6; N in NO₃⁻ = +5. The structures are HO–S(=O)₂–O–O–H, O₃Cr–O–CrO₃, and planar NO₃⁻, respectively.

292

NCERT Exercise 7.6 — Writing Compound Formulas

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Hg²⁺ and Cl⁻ combine in a 1:2 ratio, giving HgCl₂.
  2. 2(b) Ni²⁺ and SO₄²⁻ combine in a 1:1 ratio, giving NiSO₄.
  3. 3(c) Sn⁴⁺ and O²⁻ combine in a 1:2 ratio, giving SnO₂.
  4. 4(d) Tl⁺ and SO₄²⁻ combine in a 2:1 ratio, giving Tl₂SO₄.
  5. 5(e) Fe³⁺ and SO₄²⁻ combine in a 2:3 ratio, giving Fe₂(SO₄)₃.
  6. 6(f) Cr³⁺ and O²⁻ combine in a 2:3 ratio, giving Cr₂O₃.

Final answer

(a) HgCl₂; (b) NiSO₄; (c) SnO₂; (d) Tl₂SO₄; (e) Fe₂(SO₄)₃; (f) Cr₂O₃.

293

NCERT Exercise 7.7 — Oxidation-State Range of Carbon and Nitrogen

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For carbon, the complete range is: −4 in CH₄; −3 in C₂H₆; −2 in CH₃OH; −1 in C₂H₂; 0 in CH₂Cl₂; +1 in ClC≡CCl; +2 in CHCl₃ or CO; +3 in CCl₃CCl₃; and +4 in CCl₄ or CO₂.
  2. 2For nitrogen, the complete range is: −3 in NH₃; −2 in N₂H₄; −1 in N₂H₂; 0 in N₂; +1 in N₂O; +2 in NO; +3 in N₂O₃; +4 in NO₂; and +5 in N₂O₅.
  3. 3These are examples; several different substances can represent the same oxidation state.

Final answer

Carbon: −4 CH₄, −3 C₂H₆, −2 CH₃OH, −1 C₂H₂, 0 CH₂Cl₂, +1 ClC≡CCl, +2 CHCl₃ or CO, +3 CCl₃CCl₃, +4 CCl₄ or CO₂. Nitrogen: −3 NH₃, −2 N₂H₄, −1 N₂H₂, 0 N₂, +1 N₂O, +2 NO, +3 N₂O₃, +4 NO₂, +5 N₂O₅.

294

NCERT Exercise 7.8 — Oxidising and Reducing Behaviour

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1SO₂ contains S at +4. It can be oxidised to +6, acting as a reducing agent, or reduced to lower states, acting as an oxidising agent.
  2. 2H₂O₂ contains O at −1. It can be oxidised to O₂ at 0, acting as a reducing agent, or reduced to H₂O with O at −2, acting as an oxidising agent.
  3. 3O₃ contains O at 0, its highest common state in the molecule. It accepts electrons and is reduced, so it acts as an oxidant.
  4. 4HNO₃ contains N at +5, a high oxidation state. It is readily reduced to lower oxidation states such as +4, +3, +2 or 0, so it acts as an oxidant.
  5. 5The general test is whether the element in the substance has a state above, below, or between the accessible states needed for oxidation or reduction.

Final answer

SO₂ and H₂O₂ have intermediate oxidation states, so either direction is possible; O₃ and HNO₃ are restricted mainly to reduction under ordinary conditions.

295

NCERT Exercise 7.9 — Isotope Tracing in Photosynthesis and Ozone–Peroxide Reaction

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Water is both consumed and produced during photosynthesis. The more complete net equation must show the 6H₂O produced, so the reactant amount is 12H₂O:
  2. 2
  3. 3Use water labelled with ¹⁸O. The ¹⁸O label appears in the evolved O₂, showing that the released oxygen comes from water.
  4. 4(b) The two O₂ molecules have different origins: one comes from O₃ and the other from H₂O₂. A stepwise representation is:
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7Adding the two steps gives O₃ + H₂O₂ → H₂O + O₂ + O₂. Label either O₃ or H₂O₂ with ¹⁸O to identify the source of each oxygen gas molecule; ¹⁸O is a stable tracer.

Final answer

(a) Water is both used and produced, so the net equation includes 12H₂O on the reactant side and 6H₂O on the product side. (b) O₂ is produced from both O₃ and H₂O₂, so the two O₂ products are written separately. ¹⁸O labelling traces the oxygen atoms.

296

NCERT Exercise 7.10 — Strong Oxidising Character of AgF₂

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In AgF₂, F is −1 and silver is +2.
  2. 2Silver in the +2 state readily accepts an electron and returns to its more stable +1 state:
  3. 3
  4. 4Because Ag²⁺ is strongly electron-accepting, AgF₂ is a powerful oxidising agent, even though it is thermodynamically unstable.

Final answer

AgF₂ contains Ag²⁺, which readily reduces to stable Ag⁺; therefore it is a strong oxidising agent.

297

NCERT Exercise 7.11 — Excess Reagent and Oxidation State

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1With phosphorus, excess P₄ limits the fluorinating agent and favours the lower fluoride:
  2. 2
  3. 3With excess F₂, the higher oxidation state is formed:
  4. 4
  5. 5With potassium, excess metal forms the lower oxide:
  6. 6
  7. 7With excess oxygen, potassium peroxide is favoured:
  8. 8
  9. 9With carbon, excess carbon favours CO:
  10. 10
  11. 11With excess oxygen, CO₂ is favoured:
  12. 12
  13. 13Thus the relative amount of oxidant or reductant controls how far oxidation or reduction proceeds.

Final answer

P₄ gives PF₃ or PF₅, K gives K₂O or K₂O₂, and C gives CO or CO₂ depending on whether reductant or oxidant is in excess.

298

NCERT Exercise 7.12 — Neutral KMnO₄ and Concentrated H₂SO₄

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Alcoholic KMnO₄ provides a convenient organic reaction medium and avoids the need to acidify or strongly alkalinise the mixture. The balanced equation for oxidation of the methyl group is:
  2. 2
  3. 3The methyl carbon changes from −3 to +3, a six-electron oxidation; Mn changes from +7 to +4. The product is potassium benzoate.
  4. 4(b) Concentrated H₂SO₄ liberates volatile HCl or HBr from the corresponding halide:
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7HBr is a sufficiently strong reducing agent to reduce H₂SO₄, while HCl is not:
  8. 8
  9. 9Thus the bromide mixture gives red bromine vapour, whereas the chloride mixture releases colourless, pungent HCl gas.

Final answer

Alcoholic KMnO₄ oxidises toluene to potassium benzoate with MnO₂ formation. Concentrated H₂SO₄ liberates HCl from chloride, but HBr from bromide is further oxidised to red Br₂.

299

NCERT Exercise 7.13 — Identifying Redox Agents

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) C₆H₆O₂ is oxidised to C₆H₄O₂, so it is the reducing agent. Ag⁺ in AgBr is reduced to Ag, so AgBr is the oxidising agent.
  2. 2(b) Carbon in HCHO changes from 0 to +2 in HCOO⁻, so HCHO is oxidised and is the reducing agent. Ag⁺ in the diamminesilver(I) complex is reduced to Ag, so the complex is the oxidising agent.
  3. 3(c) HCHO is oxidised from carbon 0 to +2, so it is the reducing agent. Cu²⁺ is reduced to Cu⁺ in Cu₂O, so Cu²⁺ is the oxidising agent.
  4. 4(d) N changes from −2 in N₂H₄ to 0 in N₂, so N₂H₄ is the reducing agent. O in H₂O₂ changes from −1 to −2, so H₂O₂ is the oxidising agent.
  5. 5(e) Pb metal changes from 0 to +2 and is oxidised, so Pb is the reducing agent. Pb in PbO₂ changes from +4 to +2, so PbO₂ is the oxidising agent.
  6. 6The substance that loses electrons is oxidised; the species that accepts electrons is the oxidising agent.

Final answer

(a) C₆H₆O₂ is oxidised and AgBr is reduced; (b) HCHO is oxidised and [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺ is reduced; (c) HCHO is oxidised and Cu²⁺ is reduced; (d) N₂H₄ is oxidised and H₂O₂ is reduced; (e) Pb is oxidised and PbO₂ is reduced.

300

NCERT Exercise 7.14 — Reactions of Thiosulphate

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The question concerns (a) iodine and (b) bromine. In thiosulphate, the terminal sulfur is −1 and the central sulfur is +5, giving an average sulfur state of +2.
  2. 2With iodine, thiosulphate is oxidised only to tetrathionate. The oxidation and reduction half-reactions are:
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5In S₄O₆²⁻, the average sulfur oxidation state is +2.5, so iodine stops at tetrathionate rather than fully oxidising thiosulphate to sulphate.
  6. 6With bromine, thiosulphate is oxidised all the way to sulphate:
  7. 7
  8. 8
  9. 9
  10. 10Bromine has a higher reduction potential than iodine, so it accepts electrons more readily and oxidises thiosulphate further. In both reactions thiosulphate is the reducing agent and the halogen is the oxidising agent.

Final answer

I₂ oxidises S₂O₃²⁻ to S₄O₆²⁻, whereas the stronger oxidant Br₂ oxidises it to SO₄²⁻. Thiosulphate is the reducing agent in both reactions.

301

NCERT Exercise 7.15 — Halogen Oxidising and Hydrohalic Reducing Power

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Fluorine has the greatest tendency to gain electrons and can oxidise Cl⁻, Br⁻ and I⁻:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5The reverse displacement by Cl₂, Br₂ or I₂ cannot oxidise F⁻, so the oxidising order is F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂.
  6. 6HI and HBr reduce concentrated H₂SO₄, whereas HCl and HF do not under these conditions:
  7. 7
  8. 8
  9. 9I⁻ can also reduce Cu²⁺ to Cu⁺, whereas Br⁻ cannot under the stated comparison:
  10. 10
  11. 11The reducing-acid order is therefore HF < HCl < HBr < HI, making HI the strongest reductant among the hydrohalic acids.

Final answer

F₂ is the strongest halogen oxidant, and HI is the strongest hydrohalic reducing agent; the orders are F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ and HF < HCl < HBr < HI.

302

NCERT Exercise 7.16 — Oxidising Action of Perxenate

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In XeO₆⁴⁻, xenon is +8; in XeO₃, xenon is +6. Xenon is therefore reduced.
  2. 2Fluoride changes from −1 to 0 in F₂, so fluoride is oxidised.
  3. 3
  4. 4The reaction shows that XeO₆⁴⁻, and hence Na₄XeO₆, can oxidise fluoride to elemental fluorine. Perxenate is therefore a very powerful oxidising agent.

Final answer

Na₄XeO₆ contains Xe(+8) and is a very strong oxidising agent; it oxidises F⁻ to F₂.

303

NCERT Exercise 7.17 — Behaviour of Ag⁺ and Cu²⁺

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In (a), P changes from +1 in H₃PO₂ to +5 in H₃PO₄. H₃PO₂ supplies electrons and Ag⁺ is reduced to Ag.
  2. 2In (b), P again changes from +1 to +5, but Cu²⁺ is not reduced under these conditions. H₃PO₂ is a stronger reducing agent than benzaldehyde.
  3. 3In (c), the aldehyde carbon changes from +1 to +3, and Ag⁺ is reduced to Ag. Benzaldehyde can therefore reduce Ag⁺.
  4. 4In (d), benzaldehyde does not reduce Cu²⁺ under the stated conditions. Cu²⁺ is a weaker oxidising agent than Ag⁺ in this comparison.
  5. 5The inference is that Ag⁺ is readily reduced by both H₃PO₂ and benzaldehyde, whereas Cu²⁺ is reduced by the stronger reducing agent H₃PO₂ but not by benzaldehyde.

Final answer

Ag⁺ is a stronger oxidising agent than Cu²⁺ under these conditions: both can be reduced by H₃PO₂, but only Ag⁺ is reduced by benzaldehyde.

304

NCERT Exercise 7.18 — Balancing by the Ion-Electron Method

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) Basic medium. The half-reactions are I⁻ → I₂ + e⁻ and MnO₄⁻ + 2H₂O + 3e⁻ → MnO₂ + 4OH⁻. Equating six electrons gives:
  2. 2
  3. 3(b) Acidic medium. Use MnO₄⁻ + 8H⁺ + 5e⁻ → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O and SO₂ + 2H₂O → HSO₄⁻ + 3H⁺ + 2e⁻. Equating ten electrons gives:
  4. 4
  5. 5(c) Acidic medium. The half-reactions are H₂O₂ + 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → 2H₂O and Fe²⁺ → Fe³⁺ + e⁻. Thus:
  6. 6
  7. 7(d) Acidic medium. Use Cr₂O₇²⁻ + 14H⁺ + 6e⁻ → 2Cr³⁺ + 7H₂O and SO₂ + 2H₂O → SO₄²⁻ + 4H⁺ + 2e⁻. Equating six electrons gives:
  8. 8

Final answer

(a) 2MnO₄⁻ + 6I⁻ + 4H₂O → 2MnO₂ + 3I₂ + 8OH⁻; (b) 2MnO₄⁻ + 5SO₂ + 2H₂O + H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 5HSO₄⁻; (c) H₂O₂ + 2Fe²⁺ + 2H⁺ → 2Fe³⁺ + 2H₂O; (d) Cr₂O₇²⁻ + 3SO₂ + 2H⁺ → 2Cr³⁺ + 3SO₄²⁻ + H₂O.

305

NCERT Exercise 7.19 — Basic-Medium Balancing and Disproportionation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) P is 0 in P₄, −3 in PH₃ and +2 in HPO₂⁻. The basic-medium half-reactions are:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4Adding the appropriately multiplied half-reactions gives:
  5. 5
  6. 6P₄ is both oxidised and reduced, so this is disproportionation; P₄ is the reducing agent for the oxidation branch and the oxidising agent for the reduction branch.
  7. 7The oxidation-number check gives 12 electrons gained for four P atoms changing 0 to −3 and 8 electrons lost for four P atoms changing 0 to +2. Equalising 24 electrons requires two P₄ on the reduction branch and three P₄ on the oxidation branch, producing the overall 5P₄ ratio.
  8. 8(b) N changes from −2 in N₂H₄ to +2 in NO, while Cl changes from +5 in ClO₃⁻ to −1. Basic half-reactions are:
  9. 9
  10. 10
  11. 11Equating 24 electrons gives:
  12. 12
  13. 13N₂H₄ is the reducing agent and ClO₃⁻ is the oxidising agent.
  14. 14The oxidation-number check is N: −2 → +2, so N₂H₄ loses 8 electrons, and Cl: +5 → −1, so each ClO₃⁻ gains 6 electrons. The 24-electron LCM gives 3 N₂H₄ and 4 ClO₃⁻.
  15. 15(c) Cl changes from +7 in Cl₂O₇ to +3 in ClO₂⁻, while peroxide oxygen changes from −1 to 0. Basic half-reactions are:
  16. 16
  17. 17
  18. 18Equating eight electrons gives:
  19. 19
  20. 20Cl₂O₇ is the oxidising agent and H₂O₂ is the reducing agent.
  21. 21The oxidation-number check is Cl: +7 → +3, so each Cl₂O₇ gains 8 electrons, and peroxide O: −1 → 0, so each H₂O₂ loses 2 electrons. This gives one Cl₂O₇ for every four H₂O₂ before balancing O, H and charge.

Final answer

(a) 5P₄ + 12H₂O + 12OH⁻ → 8PH₃ + 12HPO₂⁻; P₄ disproportionates. (b) 3N₂H₄ + 4ClO₃⁻ → 6NO + 4Cl⁻ + 6H₂O. (c) Cl₂O₇ + 4H₂O₂ + 2OH⁻ → 2ClO₂⁻ + 4O₂ + 5H₂O.

306

NCERT Exercise 7.20 — Information from Cyanogen Disproportionation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The reaction takes place in alkaline medium and is a disproportionation reaction of cyanogen, (CN)₂.
  2. 2The carbon oxidation state is +3 in cyanogen, decreases to +2 in CN⁻ and increases to +4 in CNO⁻.
  3. 3Thus cyanogen is oxidised and reduced simultaneously, showing that the C–N unit can undergo both reduction and oxidation.
  4. 4The reaction also demonstrates the reducing and oxidising character of cyanogen in alkaline solution and the formation of cyanide and cyanate ions.
  5. 5

Final answer

Cyanogen disproportionates in base: C(+3) is reduced to C(+2) in CN⁻ and oxidised to C(+4) in CNO⁻.

307

NCERT Exercise 7.21 — Disproportionation of Mn³⁺

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Mn is +3 initially. It is reduced to Mn²⁺ and oxidised to Mn in MnO₂ at +4.
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4Add the half-reactions; two Mn³⁺ ions undergo disproportionation:
  5. 5
  6. 6Because H⁺ is a product, a high H⁺ concentration suppresses the forward reaction; dilution or removal of H⁺ favours disproportionation.

Final answer

2Mn³⁺ + 2H₂O → Mn²⁺ + MnO₂ + 4H⁺.

308

NCERT Exercise 7.22 — Oxidation States of Cs, Ne, I and F

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1(a) F is −1 in all ordinary compounds and is the element with only negative oxidation state.
  2. 2(b) Cs is an alkali metal and has oxidation state +1 in all its compounds.
  3. 3(c) I shows −1 in iodides and positive states such as +1, +5 and +7 in oxycompounds.
  4. 4(d) Ne is a noble gas with oxidation state 0 and does not show either positive or negative oxidation state under ordinary conditions.
  5. 5The relevant oxidation-number assignments are F = −1, Cs = +1 and Ne = 0.

Final answer

(a) F; (b) Cs; (c) I; (d) Ne.

309

NCERT Exercise 7.23 — Removal of Excess Chlorine

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Cl₂ is reduced from 0 to −1, while S in SO₂ is oxidised from +4 to +6 in sulphate.
  2. 2The ionic redox change is:
  3. 3
  4. 4A molecular form is:
  5. 5
  6. 6Chlorine is the oxidising agent and SO₂ is the reducing agent.

Final answer

Cl₂ + SO₂ + 2H₂O → 2Cl⁻ + SO₄²⁻ + 4H⁺; equivalently, Cl₂ + SO₂ + 2H₂O → 2HCl + H₂SO₄.

310

NCERT Exercise 7.24 — Elements That Can Disproportionate

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A disproportionation reaction contains the same element in an intermediate oxidation state in both the oxidised and reduced products.
  2. 2(a) P, Cl and S are suitable non-metals. For example, P(0) can form P(−3) and P(+1), Cl(0) can form Cl(−1) and Cl(+1), and S(0) can form S(−2) and S(+4).
  3. 3(b) Mn, Cu and Ga are suitable metals. Mn(III) can form Mn(II) and Mn(IV); Cu(I) can form Cu(0) and Cu(II); Ga can show Ga(0), Ga(I) and Ga(III) behaviour.
  4. 4The selected element must have access to at least three relevant oxidation states, with one state between the products of oxidation and reduction.

Final answer

Non-metals: P, Cl and S. Metals: Mn, Cu and Ga.

311

NCERT Exercise 7.25 — Maximum Yield of Nitric Oxide

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Moles of ammonia:
  2. 2
  3. 3The O₂ required for this amount is:
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6Only 20.00 g O₂ is available, so O₂ is the limiting reagent.
  7. 7Moles of O₂ available:
  8. 8
  9. 9From 5 mol O₂, 4 mol NO are formed:
  10. 10
  11. 11Mass of NO:
  12. 12

Final answer

Maximum mass of NO = 15.00 g; O₂ is the limiting reagent.

312

NCERT Exercise 7.26 — Feasibility from Electrode Potentials

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For a spontaneous redox reaction, E°cell = E°cathode − E°anode must be positive. Do not multiply E° values by coefficients in the balanced equation.
  2. 2(a) Fe³⁺ is reduced and I⁻ is oxidised: E°cell = 0.77 − 0.54 = +0.23 V. The reaction is feasible.
  3. 3(b) Ag⁺ is reduced and Cu is oxidised: E°cell = 0.80 − 0.34 = +0.46 V. The reaction is feasible.
  4. 4(c) Fe³⁺ is reduced and Cu is oxidised: E°cell = 0.77 − 0.34 = +0.43 V. The reaction is feasible.
  5. 5(d) Fe³⁺ is reduced and Ag is oxidised: E°cell = 0.77 − 0.80 = −0.03 V. The reaction is not feasible in the stated direction.
  6. 6(e) Br₂ is reduced and Fe²⁺ is oxidised: E°cell = 1.09 − 0.77 = +0.32 V. The reaction is feasible.

Final answer

(a) +0.23 V, feasible; (b) +0.46 V, feasible; (c) +0.43 V, feasible; (d) −0.03 V, not feasible; (e) +0.32 V, feasible.

313

NCERT Exercise 7.27 — Products of Electrolysis

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1At the cathode, reduction occurs; at the anode, oxidation occurs. The electrode material can supply a species more readily than water or the dissolved ions.
  2. 2(i) With Ag electrodes, Ag⁺ is reduced at the cathode and Ag metal is oxidised at the anode. Silver is transferred from anode to cathode and the electrolyte concentration remains essentially unchanged.
  3. 3(ii) With Pt electrodes, Ag⁺ is reduced to Ag at the cathode, while water is oxidised to O₂ at the anode:
  4. 4
  5. 5(iii) In dilute H₂SO₄, H⁺ is reduced to H₂ at the cathode and water is oxidised to O₂ at the anode:
  6. 6
  7. 7(iv) Cu²⁺ is reduced to Cu at the cathode and Cl⁻ is oxidised to Cl₂ at the anode:
  8. 8

Final answer

(i) Ag deposits at the cathode while the Ag anode dissolves; (ii) Ag forms at the cathode and O₂ at the anode, with HNO₃ formed; (iii) H₂ forms at the cathode and O₂ at the anode; (iv) Cu forms at the cathode and Cl₂ at the anode.

314

NCERT Exercise 7.28 — Order of Displacement of Metals

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A metal displaces another metal from its salt solution when it has a greater tendency to be oxidised, or equivalently when the displaced metal has a more negative standard reduction potential.
  2. 2The relevant reduction potentials decrease in the order Mg²⁺/Mg, Al³⁺/Al, Zn²⁺/Zn, Fe²⁺/Fe and Cu²⁺/Cu.
  3. 3Therefore the displacement or reducing-power order is:
  4. 4
  5. 5Each metal to the left can displace a metal to its right from a solution of the latter's salt.

Final answer

Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Cu.

315

NCERT Exercise 7.29 — Increasing Reducing Power

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Reducing power is the tendency of a metal to lose electrons and is inversely related to the magnitude of its standard reduction potential.
  2. 2The more negative the reduction potential, the stronger the metal is as a reducing agent. The given order from least to most reducing is therefore:
  3. 3
  4. 4For example, K has E° = −2.93 V and is more easily oxidised than Mg with E° = −2.37 V, while Ag with E° = +0.80 V is the least reducing in the set.

Final answer

Increasing reducing power: Ag < Hg < Cr < Mg < K.

316

NCERT Exercise 7.30 — The Zn–Ag Galvanic Cell

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Zinc is oxidised at the anode and silver ions are reduced at the cathode:
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4The zinc electrode is therefore the negative electrode (anode), and the silver electrode is the positive electrode (cathode).
  5. 5Electrons travel through the external circuit from the Zn electrode to the Ag electrode. In the salt bridge, anions migrate toward the Zn anode and cations migrate toward the Ag cathode to maintain electrical neutrality.
  6. 6The cell can be represented in words as Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(aq) || Ag⁺(aq) | Ag(s). Using E°Ag⁺/Ag = 0.80 V and E°Zn²⁺/Zn = −0.76 V:
  7. 7

Final answer

Zn electrode: negative anode; Ag electrode: positive cathode. Electrons flow Zn → Ag externally; anions move toward Zn and cations toward Ag in the salt bridge. Half-reactions are Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ and 2Ag⁺ + 2e⁻ → 2Ag.

317

Chapter 8 — Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Organic chemistry studies the structure, properties and reactions of carbon compounds. This chapter introduces nomenclature and structural formulae, hybridisation and bonding, resonance, electronic effects, reaction intermediates and the main reaction types, followed by methods for purifying organic compounds and estimating carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, halogens, sulphur and phosphorus. Each exercise below is renumbered to the official NCERT Chapter 8 sequence and worked with the rule, application and conclusion made explicit.

Board pattern

For naming, first identify the principal functional group and longest chain, then number for the lowest set of locants and apply the alphabetical tie-break. For mechanisms, show the electron pair, not only the final product: identify σ and π bonds, resonance contributors, electrophiles, nucleophiles, homolysis or heterolysis, and the resulting radical, carbocation or carbanion. For estimation, write the balanced conversion and the stoichiometric mass relation before substituting numbers.

Work through the official sequence in four natural groups: structure, nomenclature and functional groups (8.1–8.9); electronic effects, resonance, reaction partners and mechanisms (8.10–8.17); purification and qualitative tests (8.18–8.31); and quantitative elemental analysis followed by short multiple-choice checks (8.32–8.40). The references below use the official Chapter 8 numbering throughout.

318

NCERT Exercise 8.1 — Hybridisation States of Carbon Atoms

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A carbon with two σ bonds and no lone pair, as at a carbonyl carbon, is sp hybridised; a carbon with three σ bonds is sp² hybridised; and a saturated carbon with four σ bonds is sp³ hybridised.
  2. 2In CH₂=C=O, the terminal CH₂ carbon is sp² and the central carbon is sp.
  3. 3In CH₃CH=CH₂, the methyl carbon is sp³ and both alkene carbons are sp².
  4. 4In (CH₃)₂CO, the carbonyl carbon is sp² and the two methyl carbons are sp³.
  5. 5In CH₂=CH–CN, the two alkene carbons are sp² and the nitrile carbon is sp; in benzene all six carbons are sp².

Final answer

(i) sp², sp; (ii) sp³, sp², sp²; (iii) sp³, sp², sp³; (iv) sp², sp², sp; (v) all six carbons are sp² hybridised.

319

NCERT Exercise 8.2 — Counting Sigma and Pi Bonds

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Every atom-to-atom connection contains one σ bond; a multiple bond adds one or more π bonds.
  2. 2Benzene has a six-membered carbon ring with six C–C σ bonds, six C–H σ bonds and three delocalised π bonds.
  3. 3Cyclohexane has six C–C σ bonds and twelve C–H σ bonds, with no π bond.
  4. 4CH₂Cl₂ has two C–H and two C–Cl σ bonds and no π bond; CH₂=C=CH₂ has two C–C σ bonds, four C–H σ bonds and two π bonds.
  5. 5In one nitro resonance contributor, CH₃NO₂ has three C–H σ bonds, one C–N σ bond, one N–O σ bond and one N=O π bond. HCONHCH₃ has four C–H σ bonds, one N–H σ bond, two C–N σ bonds, one C–O σ bond and one C=O π bond.

Final answer

The counts are: (i) 6 C–C σ, 6 C–H σ, 3 π; (ii) 6 C–C σ and 12 C–H σ; (iii) 2 C–H σ and 2 C–Cl σ; (iv) 2 C–C σ, 4 C–H σ and 2 π; (v) 3 C–H σ, 1 C–N σ, 1 N–O σ and 1 π; (vi) 4 C–H σ, 1 N–H σ, 2 C–N σ, 1 C–O σ and 1 C=O π.

320

NCERT Exercise 8.3 — Bond-Line Formulae of Three Compounds

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Isopropyl alcohol has a three-carbon chain with the hydroxyl group on the middle carbon: (CH₃)₂CH–OH.
  2. 22,3-Dimethylbutanal has the aldehyde carbon in the parent chain and methyl groups on C-2 and C-3: OHC–CH(CH₃)–CH(CH₃)–CH₃.
  3. 3Heptan-4-one has seven carbons with the carbonyl group at C-4: CH₃CH₂CH₂–CO–CH₂CH₂CH₃.
  4. 4A bond-line drawing leaves the carbon skeleton and attached heteroatoms visible; the condensed formulae above identify every vertex and substituent unambiguously.

Final answer

The three structures are (CH₃)₂CH–OH, OHC–CH(CH₃)–CH(CH₃)–CH₃ and CH₃CH₂CH₂–CO–CH₂CH₂CH₃, respectively.

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NCERT Exercise 8.4 — IUPAC Names from Displayed Structures

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Choose the parent that contains the principal functional group, number it from the end nearest that group, and list substituents in alphabetical order.
  2. 2For the benzene compound, benzene is the preferred parent because it contains six ring carbons, giving propylbenzene; 1-phenylpropane is an older, non-preferred form.
  3. 3The nitrile carbon is C-1, the chain has five carbons and the methyl substituent is at C-3, giving 3-methylpentanenitrile.
  4. 4The alkane names are 2,5-dimethylheptane and 3-bromo-3-chloroheptane; in the latter, bromo is alphabetised before chloro.
  5. 5The aldehyde has three carbons and chlorine at C-3, giving 3-chloropropanal. In Cl₂CHCH₂OH, the alcohol has priority, both chlorines are at C-2, and the name is 2,2-dichloroethan-1-ol.

Final answer

(a) propylbenzene; (b) 3-methylpentanenitrile; (c) 2,5-dimethylheptane; (d) 3-bromo-3-chloroheptane; (e) 3-chloropropanal; (f) 2,2-dichloroethan-1-ol.

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NCERT Exercise 8.5 — Choosing Correct IUPAC Names

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The multiplier di- or tri- is retained when identical substituents are present.
  2. 2Compare locant sets at the first point of difference: 2,4,7 is lower than 2,5,7.
  3. 3When the two numbering directions give the same set, give the lower locant to the substituent cited first alphabetically; chloro precedes methyl.
  4. 4The alcohol is the principal functional group, so the suffix is -ol and receives the lowest locant; the triple bond is then described as but-3-yn-1-ol.

Final answer

The correct names are (a) 2,2-dimethylpentane, (b) 2,4,7-trimethyloctane, (c) 2-chloro-4-methylpentane and (d) but-3-yn-1-ol.

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NCERT Exercise 8.6 — First Five Members of Homologous Series

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Members of a homologous series differ by CH₂ and retain the same functional group.
  2. 2The acid series is methanoic, ethanoic, propanoic, butanoic and pentanoic acid: HCOOH, CH₃COOH, CH₃CH₂COOH, CH₃CH₂CH₂COOH and CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂COOH.
  3. 3The ketone series is propanone, butanone, pentan-2-one, hexan-2-one and heptan-2-one.
  4. 4The alkene series is ethene, propene, but-1-ene, pent-1-ene and hex-1-ene, with the double bond at the end of the written chain.

Final answer

(a) methanoic through pentanoic acid; (b) propanone, butanone, pentan-2-one, hexan-2-one and heptan-2-one; (c) ethene, propene, but-1-ene, pent-1-ene and hex-1-ene.

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NCERT Exercise 8.7 — Condensed Formulas and Functional Groups

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For 2,2,4-trimethylpentane, select the five-carbon chain CH₃–C–CH₂–CH–CH₃; put two methyl groups on C-2 and one on C-4.
  2. 2Its condensed formula is (CH₃)₃C–CH₂–CH(CH₃)–CH₃, not a formula that places all three methyl groups on the terminal quaternary carbon.
  3. 3Citric acid has three carboxyl groups and one alcohol group: HOOC–CH₂–C(OH)(COOH)–CH₂–COOH.
  4. 4Hexane-1,6-dial is OHC–(CH₂)₄–CHO and therefore contains two aldehyde groups.

Final answer

(a) (CH₃)₃C–CH₂–CH(CH₃)–CH₃, with no functional group; (b) HOOC–CH₂–C(OH)(COOH)–CH₂–COOH, with three –COOH and one –OH; (c) OHC–(CH₂)₄–CHO, with two –CHO groups.

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NCERT Exercise 8.8 — Identifying Functional Groups

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1An aldehyde is recognised by –CHO, an alcohol by –OH, an ether by –O–, and an alkene by a carbon–carbon double bond.
  2. 2The second structure contains a primary amino group (–NH₂), an ester linkage (–O–CO–), and a tertiary amine whose nitrogen has three carbon attachments and no N–H bond.
  3. 3A nitro group is –NO₂; it is not the same as a nitrate ester or a nitrile group.
  4. 4Report every group present rather than naming only the group used to name the compound.

Final answer

(a) aldehyde, hydroxyl, methoxy/ether and C=C; (b) primary amine, ester and tertiary amine; (c) nitro and C=C double bond.

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NCERT Exercise 8.9 — Comparing Two Alkoxide Ions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A nitro group withdraws electron density through the –I effect and pulls it toward the nitro group.
  2. 2In O₂N–CH₂–CH₂–O⁻, this withdrawal reduces and stabilises the negative charge on the terminal oxygen.
  3. 3The ethyl group in CH₃CH₂–O⁻ has a +I effect and increases electron density near the negatively charged oxygen, destabilising the anion.

Final answer

O₂N–CH₂–CH₂–O⁻ is more stable because the electron-withdrawing nitro group stabilises the negative charge, whereas the electron-releasing ethyl group destabilises ethoxide.

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NCERT Exercise 8.10 — Alkyl Donation by Hyperconjugation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1An alkyl group directly attached to a π-bonded carbon contains σ(C–H) or σ(C–C) bonds on the adjacent saturated carbon.
  2. 2A filled σ orbital can overlap partially with the neighbouring empty p orbital involved in the π system.
  3. 3This overlap delocalises electron density into the π system; the contributors are often called no-bond resonance structures because a C–H bond is temporarily represented as broken.
  4. 4The resulting electron donation is called hyperconjugation and stabilises the conjugated or unsaturated system.

Final answer

Alkyl groups donate through hyperconjugation: electrons from a σ bond on the adjacent sp³ carbon overlap with the π-system p orbital and become delocalised into the π bond.

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NCERT Exercise 8.11 — Resonance Structures of Six Species

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Resonance changes only electron placement; atoms are not rearranged and all contributors must have the same sigma framework.
  2. 2For phenol, a lone pair on oxygen can form a π bond to the ring, placing positive charge on oxygen and negative charge at the ortho and para ring positions in separate contributors.
  3. 3For nitrobenzene, the two N–O bonds are represented by equivalent charge-separated contributors, and the ring can also delocalise into the nitro group at ortho and para positions.
  4. 4For CH₃CH=CHCHO, the C=C and C=O bonds are conjugated; π electrons can shift toward the carbonyl, giving contributors with negative charge on oxygen and positive charge at the remote conjugated carbon.
  5. 5Benzaldehyde has ring-to-carbonyl conjugation, so charge-separated contributors place negative charge on oxygen and positive charge at ring positions. In the benzyl carbocation, the positive charge is delocalised to the ortho and para ring positions; in the allylic carbocation, it is shared between the two terminal allylic carbons.

Final answer

The contributors are obtained by moving π electrons or a lone pair while keeping every atom in the same position: phenol has ortho/para ring-charge contributors, nitrobenzene has equivalent N–O contributors, the enal and benzaldehyde have carbonyl-conjugated contributors, the benzyl carbocation has ring-delocalised positive charge, and the allylic carbocation has the two terminal-carbocation contributors.

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NCERT Exercise 8.12 — Electrophiles and Nucleophiles

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1An electrophile is electron-deficient and accepts an electron pair; a nucleophile is electron-rich and donates an electron pair.
  2. 2Positive ions such as H⁺, carbocations and acylium ions are electrophiles, as are neutral molecules with an electron-deficient atom such as BF₃.
  3. 3Anions such as OH⁻, CN⁻ and carbanions are nucleophiles because they possess available electron density.
  4. 4Neutral molecules with a lone pair, including NH₃ and H₂O, can also act as nucleophiles.

Final answer

Electrophiles accept electron pairs and nucleophiles donate them; H⁺, R⁺ and BF₃ are electrophiles, while OH⁻, CN⁻, R⁻, NH₃ and H₂O are nucleophiles.

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NCERT Exercise 8.13 — Identifying Electrophiles and Nucleophiles

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1OH⁻ has a negative charge and a lone pair, so it donates an electron pair to the proton of acetic acid.
  2. 2CN⁻ is also an electron-rich anion; its carbon end attacks the electrophilic carbonyl carbon of propanone.
  3. 3CH₃CO⁺ is the acylium ion. Its positively charged carbonyl carbon is electron-deficient and accepts a pair from the benzene π electrons.

Final answer

(a) HO⁻ is a nucleophile; (b) CN⁻ is a nucleophile; (c) CH₃CO⁺ is an electrophile.

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NCERT Exercise 8.14 — Classifying Four Reactions

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In (a), the –SH group replaces Br without changing the carbon skeleton, so the reaction is nucleophilic substitution.
  2. 2In (b), H and Cl add across the C=C bond and the two reactants form one product, so it is an electrophilic addition reaction.
  3. 3In (c), a β-hydrogen and Br are removed from adjacent positions to form a π bond, so it is elimination.
  4. 4In (d), the neopentyl alcohol framework rearranges while –OH is replaced by Br; the carbocation rearrangement precedes substitution, giving 2-bromo-2-methylbutane.

Final answer

(a) substitution; (b) addition; (c) elimination; (d) substitution followed by rearrangement.

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NCERT Exercise 8.15 — Structural, Geometrical and Resonance Relationships

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Pair (a) contains hexan-2-one and hexan-3-one: the molecular formula is the same but the position of the ketone group changes, so the compounds are structural (positional) isomers.
  2. 2Pair (b) has the same constitution and bond sequence, but D and H occupy different relative positions across the same double-bond framework; these are geometrical isomers.
  3. 3Pair (c) has identical atom connectivity and differs only in electron placement, so the drawings are canonical resonance contributors, not separate molecules.

Final answer

(a) structural isomers; (b) geometrical isomers; (c) resonance contributors.

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NCERT Exercise 8.16 — Homolysis, Heterolysis and Intermediates

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Homolysis divides the shared pair equally, giving two radicals; the first cleavage is therefore homolysis and produces a free radical.
  2. 2If both electrons remain on carbon, the carbon fragment is negatively charged, so the second cleavage is heterolysis and produces a carbanion.
  3. 3If both electrons remain on bromine, the carbon fragment is positively charged, so the third cleavage is heterolysis and produces a carbocation.
  4. 4The fourth displayed cleavage is also heterolysis; retention of the electron pair by the carbon fragment gives a carbocation.

Final answer

(a) homolysis, free radical; (b) heterolysis, carbanion; (c) heterolysis, carbocation; (d) heterolysis, carbocation.

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NCERT Exercise 8.17 — Inductive and Electromeric Effects

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The inductive effect is permanent polarisation of σ electrons through a saturated chain by an electron-withdrawing –I group or electron-releasing +I group.
  2. 2The electromeric effect is a temporary shift of π electrons in a multiple bond caused by an attacking reagent; it can be +E or –E according to the direction of displacement.
  3. 3Each chlorine exerts –I, and the effect becomes stronger with more chlorine atoms. The conjugate base is stabilised and acidity increases in the order in (a).
  4. 4More alkyl groups exert a stronger +I effect, which destabilises the carboxylate conjugate base. Acidity therefore decreases from propanoic to isobutyric to pivalic acid in (b).

Final answer

The –I effect of increasing chlorine explains (a); the increasing +I effect of alkyl groups explains the decreasing acidity in (b). The source wording that +I increases acidity is corrected: +I destabilises the conjugate base and lowers acidity.

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NCERT Exercise 8.18 — Principles of Purification Techniques

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Crystallisation separates a solid from impurities when its solubility changes greatly with temperature. Crude aspirin, for example, is dissolved in a minimum of hot ethanol and crystallised on cooling.
  2. 2Distillation separates volatile liquids from non-volatile material, or liquids with sufficiently different boiling points, by vaporising and condensing them. Chloroform can be distilled from aniline because their boiling points differ greatly.
  3. 3Chromatography separates components by their different adsorption or partition between a stationary phase and a mobile phase. A mixture of red and blue ink can be separated on paper because the components travel differently.

Final answer

Crystallisation uses temperature-dependent solubility, distillation uses different volatilities or boiling points, and chromatography uses differential movement through stationary and mobile phases.

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NCERT Exercise 8.19 — Fractional Crystallisation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Add S slowly to the powdered mixture with stirring until the mixture is just dissolved, then heat the saturated solution so that any insoluble impurity can be removed by hot filtration.
  2. 2Cool the clear hot solution. The less soluble compound reaches saturation first and crystallises; filter off those crystals before the more soluble compound crystallises.
  3. 3Concentrate the mother liquor and cool it again. The more soluble compound now crystallises in a later fraction.
  4. 4Filter and dry each fraction separately, repeating the concentration and cooling if necessary for better separation.

Final answer

Fractional crystallisation separates the mixture by successive crystallisation: the less soluble compound is removed first, followed by the more soluble compound from the concentrated mother liquor.

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NCERT Exercise 8.20 — Comparing Distillation Methods

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Ordinary distillation separates a volatile liquid from non-volatile impurities or separates liquids with sufficiently different boiling points when both are stable on heating; petrol and kerosene are an example.
  2. 2Reduced-pressure or vacuum distillation lowers the boiling point by reducing external pressure. It purifies heat-sensitive liquids that decompose at their normal boiling point; glycerol can be distilled under reduced pressure without decomposition.
  3. 3Steam distillation is used for an organic liquid that is steam-volatile and immiscible with water. The mixed vapours are condensed together and the organic layer is separated with a separating funnel; water and aniline are an example.

Final answer

Ordinary distillation uses boiling-point differences at atmospheric pressure; reduced-pressure distillation protects heat-sensitive compounds by lowering the boiling point; steam distillation co-distils an immiscible organic liquid with steam below its normal boiling point.

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NCERT Exercise 8.21 — Chemistry of Lassaigne Tests

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Sodium fusion converts covalently bound elements into ionic sodium salts: NaCN from nitrogen, Na₂S from sulphur and NaX from a halogen, where X is Cl, Br or I. The fused mass is boiled in water to make the sodium extract.
  2. 2For nitrogen, CN⁻ combines with Fe²⁺ to form [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻. Oxidation of part of the Fe²⁺ to Fe³⁺ gives hydrated Prussian blue, Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃·xH₂O.
  3. 3For sulphur, acetic acid releases H₂S from sulphide; lead acetate gives black PbS, and sodium nitroprusside gives a violet colour. If both N and S are present, NaSCN can form instead of free CN⁻, giving a blood-red complex with Fe³⁺.
  4. 4For halogens, X⁻ reacts with Ag⁺ to form insoluble AgX after the extract is acidified with dilute HNO₃ and interfering CN⁻ and S²⁻ are expelled. AgCl is white, AgBr is pale yellow and AgI is yellow.

Final answer

Sodium fusion creates CN⁻, S²⁻ or X⁻, which are identified by the characteristic cyanide–iron Prussian-blue reaction, PbS or nitroprusside tests for sulphur, and coloured AgX precipitates for halogens.

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NCERT Exercise 8.22 — Dumas and Kjeldahl Nitrogen Methods

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In the Dumas method, a known mass is heated with excess CuO in a carbon dioxide atmosphere. Carbon and hydrogen form CO₂ and H₂O, while nitrogen is converted to N₂; nitrogen oxides, if formed, are reduced over heated copper.
  2. 2The N₂ is collected over aqueous KOH to remove CO₂ and its volume is corrected to the original temperature and pressure. From the volume, the mass and percentage of nitrogen are calculated.
  3. 3In the Kjeldahl method, the compound is digested with concentrated H₂SO₄ so that nitrogen becomes ammonium salt. Excess NaOH releases NH₃, which is absorbed in a known excess of standard H₂SO₄.
  4. 4The unconsumed acid is back-titrated with standard NaOH. Kjeldahl is unsuitable for nitrogen in aromatic rings and for many nitro or azo compounds, whereas the Dumas principle is more broadly applicable.

Final answer

Dumas measures N₂ liberated by complete oxidation; Kjeldahl measures NH₃ released from an ammonium salt and determined by acid–base back-titration.

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NCERT Exercise 8.23 — Estimating Halogens, Sulphur and Phosphorus

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For halogen estimation, the compound is heated with fuming HNO₃ and AgNO₃ in a Carius tube. Carbon and hydrogen oxidise to CO₂ and H₂O, while X becomes AgX. The filtered, washed and dried AgX is weighed.
  2. 2If m is the sample mass and m₁ is the AgX mass, the halogen percentage is 100 × (atomic mass of X)m₁/(molar mass of AgX × m).
  3. 3For sulphur, oxidation gives H₂SO₄ and addition of BaCl₂ gives BaSO₄. Since 233 g of BaSO₄ contains 32 g of sulphur, %S = 100 × 32m₁/(233m).
  4. 4For phosphorus, oxidation gives H₃PO₄. It can be precipitated as ammonium phosphomolybdate of molar mass 1877, giving %P = 100 × 31m₁/(1877m), or as MgNH₄PO₄ followed by ignition to Mg₂P₂O₇, giving %P = 100 × 62m₁/(222m).

Final answer

Halogens are weighed as AgX, sulphur as BaSO₄, and phosphorus as ammonium phosphomolybdate or Mg₂P₂O₇; each percentage follows from the one-to-one elemental stoichiometry.

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NCERT Exercise 8.24 — Paper Chromatography

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Spot a solution of the mixture near the base of chromatography paper. Water held by the paper acts as the stationary phase and the selected solvent acts as the mobile phase.
  2. 2The solvent rises by capillary action and carries the components to different heights because they partition differently between the water in the paper and the moving solvent.
  3. 3The developed paper is the chromatogram. For a component, Rf = distance travelled by the component / distance travelled by the solvent front.

Final answer

Paper chromatography separates components by differential partition between water in the paper (stationary phase) and a moving solvent (mobile phase); the resulting chromatogram identifies the components through their relative migration.

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NCERT Exercise 8.25 — Nitric Acid Before Silver Nitrate

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1If the original compound contained nitrogen or sulphur, the extract may contain CN⁻ and S²⁻, which can react with Ag⁺ or otherwise interfere with the halide precipitate.
  2. 2Dilute HNO₃ acidifies CN⁻ and S²⁻ to volatile HCN and H₂S; boiling expels both gases.
  3. 3After the interfering species have been removed, X⁻ can react cleanly with Ag⁺ to give AgX: Ag⁺ + X⁻ → AgX.

Final answer

Dilute nitric acid decomposes cyanide and sulphide in the extract and boiling expels HCN and H₂S, preventing interference before the halide ions are precipitated as AgX.

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NCERT Exercise 8.26 — Reason for Sodium Fusion

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Nitrogen, sulphur and halogens are covalently bonded in the organic compound and cannot be tested directly as free ions.
  2. 2Fusion with sodium breaks the covalent framework and converts the elements into water-soluble ionic sodium salts: NaCN, NaSCN or Na₂S, and NaX.
  3. 3Boiling the fused mass in water extracts these ions, so conventional qualitative tests for CN⁻, S²⁻ and X⁻ become possible.

Final answer

Sodium fusion converts covalently bound N, S and halogens into ionic sodium salts, making them detectable in the aqueous extract.

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NCERT Exercise 8.27 — Separating Camphor and Calcium Sulphate

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Camphor is sublimable: on heating it changes directly from solid to vapour and later condenses to crystals.
  2. 2Calcium sulphate is non-sublimable under these conditions and remains in the apparatus.
  3. 3Collect the condensed camphor on a cold surface, leaving calcium sulphate behind.

Final answer

Use sublimation followed by condensation of the vapour; camphor sublimes while calcium sulphate does not.

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NCERT Exercise 8.28 — Vapour Pressure in Steam Distillation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The organic liquid and water are immiscible, so each contributes its own vapour pressure to the vapour mixture.
  2. 2The mixture boils when the sum of the partial vapour pressures equals atmospheric pressure: p_atm = p_organic + p_water.
  3. 3The organic component therefore contributes part of the total pressure and reaches the vapour phase at a temperature below its pure-liquid boiling point.

Final answer

Steam distillation co-distils the immiscible organic liquid because p_atm = p_organic + p_water; the total pressure is reached before the organic liquid's own boiling point.

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NCERT Exercise 8.29 — Testing Carbon Tetrachloride for Chloride

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The chlorine atoms in CCl₄ are covalently bonded to carbon and are not present as free chloride ions.
  2. 2AgCl precipitation requires Cl⁻ + Ag⁺ → AgCl, so the covalent chlorine must first be converted to an ionic halide.
  3. 3A Lassaigne sodium fusion would produce NaCl in the extract, after which AgNO₃ could give the white AgCl precipitate.

Final answer

No. CCl₄ does not give AgCl directly because its chlorine is covalently bonded; sodium fusion is needed to produce Cl⁻.

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NCERT Exercise 8.30 — Absorbing Carbon Dioxide with KOH

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Carbon dioxide is acidic and reacts quantitatively with the strong base KOH: 2KOH + CO₂ → K₂CO₃ + H₂O.
  2. 2The absorbing U-tube gains the mass of the retained CO₂ while the carbon dioxide is removed from the gas stream.
  3. 3The increase in mass of the KOH tube gives the mass of CO₂, from which the mass and percentage of carbon are calculated.

Final answer

KOH quantitatively absorbs acidic CO₂ as K₂CO₃; the increase in the absorber's mass is the mass of CO₂ and therefore determines the carbon content.

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NCERT Exercise 8.31 — Choosing Acetic Acid in the Sulphur Test

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The extract contains S²⁻. Mild acidification with acetic acid releases H₂S without introducing sulfate into the solution.
  2. 2Lead acetate then reacts with H₂S to form the diagnostic black precipitate PbS: Pb²⁺ + S²⁻ → PbS.
  3. 3Sulphuric acid would introduce SO₄²⁻, which can also form an insoluble white PbSO₄ precipitate and mask the black PbS result.

Final answer

Acetic acid provides mild acidification and avoids sulfate interference. The sulphur product is black PbS, not PbSO₄; this corrects the source explanation.

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NCERT Exercise 8.32 — Carbon Dioxide and Water from Combustion

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Mass of carbon in the sample: 0.20 × 69.0/100 = 0.138 g.
  2. 2In 44 g of CO₂, 12 g is carbon, so m(CO₂) = 0.138 × 44/12 = 0.506 g.
  3. 3Mass of hydrogen in the sample: 0.20 × 4.8/100 = 0.0096 g.
  4. 4In 18 g of H₂O, 2 g is hydrogen, so m(H₂O) = 0.0096 × 18/2 = 0.0864 g.

Final answer

The sample produces 0.506 g of CO₂ and 0.0864 g of H₂O.

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NCERT Exercise 8.33 — Nitrogen by Kjeldahl Titration

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Initial H₂SO₄ = 0.050 L × 0.5 mol L⁻¹ = 0.025 mol.
  2. 2Residual H₂SO₄ = (0.060 L × 0.5 mol L⁻¹)/2 = 0.015 mol, because one mole of H₂SO₄ neutralises two moles of NaOH.
  3. 3H₂SO₄ consumed by NH₃ = 0.025 − 0.015 = 0.010 mol; 2NH₃ + H₂SO₄ → (NH₄)₂SO₄, so n(NH₃) = 0.020 mol.
  4. 4Mass of nitrogen = 0.020 × 14 = 0.28 g; percentage N = 0.28/0.50 × 100 = 56%.

Final answer

The organic compound contains 56% nitrogen by mass.

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NCERT Exercise 8.34 — Chlorine by Carius Estimation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1One mole of AgCl contains one mole of Cl, so m(Cl) = m(AgCl) × 35.5/143.32.
  2. 2m(Cl) = 0.5740 × 35.5/143.32 = 0.1421 g approximately.
  3. 3%Cl = 0.1421/0.3780 × 100 = 37.59%.

Final answer

The chlorine content is 37.59% by mass.

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NCERT Exercise 8.35 — Sulphur by Carius Estimation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1One mole of BaSO₄ has mass 233 g and contains 32 g of sulphur.
  2. 2m(S) = 0.668 × 32/233 = 0.0917 g approximately.
  3. 3%S = 0.0917/0.468 × 100 = 19.59% (about 19.6%).

Final answer

The sulphur content is 19.59% by mass. The source arithmetic used 0.0197 g; the correct sulphur mass is 0.0917 g.

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NCERT Exercise 8.36 — Hybrid Orbitals in an Alkene–Alkyne Chain

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Number the chain from the terminal alkyne carbon: C₁–C₂≡C₃–C₄–C₅=C₆.
  2. 2C₁ and C₂ of the triple bond are sp hybridised; C₃ and C₄ are sp³; C₅ and C₆ are sp².
  3. 3The C₂–C₃ single bond therefore joins an sp carbon to an sp³ carbon, giving sp–sp³ overlap.

Final answer

Option (b), sp–sp³.

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NCERT Exercise 8.37 — Prussian Blue in the Nitrogen Test

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1CN⁻ first forms hexacyanoferrate(II): 6CN⁻ + Fe²⁺ → [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻.
  2. 2Acid and heat oxidise part of Fe²⁺ to Fe³⁺, which combines with hexacyanoferrate(II) to form hydrated Prussian blue.
  3. 3The characteristic formula is Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃·xH₂O, corresponding to option (b).

Final answer

Option (b), Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃, the Prussian-blue complex (usually hydrated).

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NCERT Exercise 8.38 — Most Stable Carbocation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1A positive carbon is stabilised by electron donation from adjacent alkyl groups through the +I effect and hyperconjugation.
  2. 2(a) and (c) are primary carbocations, (d) is secondary, and (b) is tertiary.
  3. 3The tertiary carbocation has three methyl groups supplying hyperconjugative C–H bonds and the strongest +I effect, so it is the most stable.

Final answer

Option (b), the tertiary carbocation (CH₃)₃C⁺, is the most stable.

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NCERT Exercise 8.39 — Best Separation and Purification Technique

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Crystallisation, distillation and sublimation depend on particular physical properties and work well for selected mixtures.
  2. 2Chromatography uses differential adsorption or partition between a stationary and a mobile phase and can separate a broad range of organic mixtures, including compounds with similar physical properties.
  3. 3Its general applicability and ability to resolve mixtures into separate components make it the best choice among the options.

Final answer

Option (d), chromatography.

357

NCERT Exercise 8.40 — Classifying an Aqueous KOH Reaction

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Aqueous KOH supplies OH⁻, which has a lone pair and acts as a nucleophile.
  2. 2OH⁻ attacks the carbon bonded to iodine and the C–I bond breaks, replacing I with OH to form ethanol.
  3. 3Because one group is replaced without a net change in the degree of unsaturation, the reaction is nucleophilic substitution rather than elimination or addition.

Final answer

Option (b), nucleophilic substitution.

358

Chapter 9 — Hydrocarbons

Hydrocarbons are compounds made only of carbon and hydrogen. They include saturated alkanes, unsaturated alkenes and alkynes, and aromatic hydrocarbons. This chapter develops nomenclature, constitutional and geometrical isomerism, preparation, addition and substitution reactions, combustion, polymerisation, ozonolysis, aromaticity and the orientation effects that control electrophilic substitution. The exercises below use the official rationalised NCERT Chapter 9 numbering and show the method, reasoning and final conclusion for each answer.

Board pattern

For naming, first select the longest parent chain containing the principal unsaturation, number for the lowest set of locants, and then list substituents alphabetically. For ozonolysis, cleave every C=C bond and replace each alkene carbon by a carbonyl carbon. For addition, identify the more stable carbocation or radical intermediate. For benzene, check planarity, continuous p-orbital overlap and Hückel's 4n+2 rule before deciding whether a system is aromatic.

Work through the exercises in four related groups: structure, nomenclature, isomers and ozonolysis (9.1–9.7); combustion, geometrical isomerism and aromaticity (9.8–9.12); benzene substitution, alkane branching and reaction mechanisms (9.13–9.19); and synthetic conversions, relative reactivity and Wurtz limitations (9.20–9.25). Keep the intermediate structures visible: a correct final name or product is stronger when the preceding bond-counting or reaction path explains why it follows.

359

NCERT Exercise 9.1 — Formation of Ethane During Methane Chlorination

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Methane and chlorine react in sunlight or at a high temperature by a free-radical chain mechanism. Chlorine first dissociates into chlorine atoms.
  2. 2
  3. 3A chlorine atom abstracts a hydrogen atom from methane, producing hydrogen chloride and a methyl radical.
  4. 4
  5. 5The methyl radical reacts with another chlorine molecule, producing chloromethane and a new chlorine atom. The propagation steps repeat while methane and chlorine remain.
  6. 6
  7. 7Two methyl radicals can also combine in a termination step. Their combination forms a C–C σ bond and gives ethane.
  8. 8

Final answer

Ethane is formed in a termination step when two methyl free radicals combine: CH₃• + CH₃• → CH₃CH₃.

360

NCERT Exercise 9.2 — IUPAC Names of Seven Structures

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1In (a), the longest chain containing the double bond has four carbons; numbering from the end nearest the double bond places it at C-2 and the methyl group at C-2.
  2. 2In (b), the five-carbon parent contains both multiple bonds. The numbering that gives the double bond the lower locant gives pent-1-en-3-yne, also written pent-1-ene-3-yne in some older answer formats.
  3. 3In (c), the four-carbon chain has double bonds at C-1 and C-3, giving buta-1,3-diene.
  4. 4In (d), benzene is treated as a phenyl substituent because the principal chain is the four-carbon chain containing the C=C bond; the double bond is at C-1 and phenyl is at C-4.
  5. 5In (e), the hydroxyl group is the principal group, so benzene is the parent and the adjacent methyl substituent is at C-2: 2-methylphenol, or o-cresol.
  6. 6In (f), the longest continuous parent chain has ten carbons. The attached branched group is a 2-methylpropyl group at C-5.
  7. 7In (g), the longest chain containing the maximum number of double bonds has ten carbons. Numbering from the terminal alkene end gives double bonds at 1, 5 and 8 and an ethyl substituent at C-4.

Final answer

(a) 2-methylbut-2-ene; (b) pent-1-en-3-yne (pent-1-ene-3-yne); (c) buta-1,3-diene; (d) 4-phenylbut-1-ene; (e) 2-methylphenol; (f) 5-(2-methylpropyl)decane; (g) 4-ethyldeca-1,5,8-triene.

361

NCERT Exercise 9.3 — Isomers with One Double or Triple Bond

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For C₄H₈ with one C=C bond, distribute the four carbon atoms between a terminal alkene, an internal alkene and a branched alkene.
  2. 2The three structural formulas are CH₂=CH–CH₂–CH₃, CH₃–CH=CH–CH₃ and CH₂=C(CH₃)₂.
  3. 3The first two are position isomers, while the third is a chain isomer of them. But-2-ene also has cis and trans geometrical forms because each double-bond carbon has two different groups.
  4. 4For C₅H₈ with one C≡C bond, the possible placements of the triple bond give pent-1-yne and pent-2-yne.
  5. 5The branched skeleton gives HC≡C–CH(CH₃)–CH₃, which is 3-methylbut-1-yne.

Final answer

(a) CH₂=CH–CH₂–CH₃, but-1-ene; CH₃–CH=CH–CH₃, but-2-ene; CH₂=C(CH₃)₂, 2-methylprop-1-ene. (b) HC≡C–CH₂–CH₂–CH₃, pent-1-yne; CH₃–C≡C–CH₂–CH₃, pent-2-yne; HC≡C–CH(CH₃)–CH₃, 3-methylbut-1-yne.

362

NCERT Exercise 9.4 — Ozonolysis Products

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Reductive ozonolysis cleaves the C=C bond and converts each alkene carbon into a carbonyl carbon. An alkene carbon carrying H gives an aldehyde; one carrying two carbon groups gives a ketone.
  2. 2Pent-2-ene, CH₃–CH=CH–CH₂–CH₃, therefore gives ethanal and propanal.
  3. 3In 3,4-dimethylhept-3-ene, the left double-bond carbon has an ethyl and a methyl group, while the right one has a methyl and a propyl group. The products are butan-2-one and pentan-2-one.
  4. 42-Ethylbut-1-ene, CH₂=C(C₂H₅)–CH₂–CH₃, gives methanal from the terminal CH₂ carbon and pentan-3-one from the substituted carbon.
  5. 51-Phenylbut-1-ene, C₆H₅–CH=CH–CH₂–CH₃, gives benzaldehyde and propanal.

Final answer

(i) Ethanal and propanal; (ii) butan-2-one and pentan-2-one; (iii) methanal and pentan-3-one; (iv) benzaldehyde and propanal.

363

NCERT Exercise 9.5 — Structure and Name of an Alkene

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Ethanal, CH₃CHO, means that one carbon of the original double bond was attached to CH₃ and H.
  2. 2Pentan-3-one, CH₃CH₂COCH₂CH₃, means that the other alkene carbon was attached to two ethyl groups.
  3. 3Join the two carbonyl carbons after removing their oxygen atoms. The resulting structure is CH₃–CH=C(CH₂CH₃)₂.
  4. 4The longest chain containing the double bond has five carbons. Numbering gives the double bond at C-2 and a methyl-derived ethyl substituent at C-3.

Final answer

A is CH₃–CH=C(CH₂CH₃)₂, and its IUPAC name is 3-ethylpent-2-ene.

364

NCERT Exercise 9.6 — Identifying an Alkene from Its Bonds

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The aldehyde with molar mass 44 u is ethanal: its formula is CH₃CHO and its molar mass is 2(12) + 4(1) + 16 = 44 u.
  2. 2Two molecules of ethanal arise when the two carbons of the original C=C bond each carry CH₃ and H. Rejoining the carbonyl carbons gives CH₃–CH=CH–CH₃.
  3. 3This structure has three C–C σ bonds, eight C–H σ bonds and one C–C π bond, matching the data.

Final answer

A is but-2-ene.

365

NCERT Exercise 9.7 — Reconstructing an Alkene from Ozonolysis

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Propanal, CH₃CH₂CHO, identifies one alkene carbon as attached to an ethyl group and H.
  2. 2Pentan-3-one, CH₃CH₂COCH₂CH₃, identifies the other alkene carbon as attached to two ethyl groups.
  3. 3Join these two carbonyl carbons by a C=C bond and remove the two oxygen atoms: CH₃CH₂–CH=C(CH₂CH₃)₂.
  4. 4The longest chain has six carbons, the double bond is at C-3 and the second ethyl group is a substituent at C-4.

Final answer

The alkene is CH₃CH₂–CH=C(CH₂CH₃)₂, named 4-ethylhex-3-ene.

366

NCERT Exercise 9.8 — Combustion Equations

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Complete combustion converts every carbon atom into CO₂ and every hydrogen atom into H₂O, while O₂ supplies oxygen and heat is released.
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6Pentene and hexyne are represented by their molecular formulas because the position of the multiple bond does not affect the complete-combustion atom balance.

Final answer

The balanced equations are 2C₄H₁₀ + 13O₂ → 8CO₂ + 10H₂O; C₅H₁₀ + 15/2 O₂ → 5CO₂ + 5H₂O; 2C₆H₁₀ + 17O₂ → 12CO₂ + 10H₂O; and C₇H₈ + 9O₂ → 7CO₂ + 4H₂O.

367

NCERT Exercise 9.9 — Cis–Trans Isomers of Hex-2-ene

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Number the parent chain CH₃–CH=CH–CH₂–CH₂–CH₃. Rotation about the C=C bond is restricted, so the CH₃ group on C-2 and the propyl group on C-3 can be on the same or opposite sides.
  2. 2In cis-hex-2-ene, the CH₃ and propyl groups are on the same side of the double bond.
  3. 3In trans-hex-2-ene, the CH₃ and propyl groups are on opposite sides of the double bond.
  4. 4The cis form has a larger net dipole moment because the bond dipoles do not cancel as effectively. Stronger dipole–dipole attraction gives it the higher boiling point.

Final answer

Cis-hex-2-ene has the higher boiling point because its polar bond dipoles add to give a larger molecular dipole moment and therefore stronger intermolecular attraction.

368

NCERT Exercise 9.10 — Aromatic Stability of Benzene

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The three double bonds drawn in one Kekulé structure are not localised in three fixed places. The six π electrons are delocalised over all six sp² carbon atoms.
  2. 2The two Kekulé contributors and the other equivalent resonance contributors describe one resonance hybrid. The hybrid is lower in energy than any single contributor.
  3. 3All six carbon–carbon bonds are consequently equivalent and have a length intermediate between a normal single and a normal double bond.
  4. 4The delocalised six-π-electron system is aromatic and strongly stabilised, so benzene resists the addition reactions expected of an isolated triene.

Final answer

Benzene is unusually stable because its six π electrons are delocalised over a planar, fully conjugated ring, giving resonance stabilisation and six equivalent C–C bonds.

369

NCERT Exercise 9.11 — Conditions for Aromaticity

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The system must be cyclic, so that a continuous ring of p orbitals can form.
  2. 2The atoms of the ring must be planar, allowing parallel p orbitals to overlap around the entire cycle.
  3. 3Every ring atom must have a p orbital in the continuously conjugated system; an sp³ atom interrupts the cyclic π cloud.
  4. 4The delocalised cyclic system must contain 4n+2 π electrons, where n is a non-negative integer. This is Hückel's rule.

Final answer

An aromatic system is cyclic, planar, fully conjugated through overlapping p orbitals at every ring atom, and contains 4n+2 delocalised π electrons.

370

NCERT Exercise 9.12 — Why Three Systems Are Not Aromatic

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For (i), the total of six π-electrons would satisfy the 4n+2 count, but the sp³ carbon is tetrahedral and has no p orbital. The ring is not fully conjugated and cannot maintain one continuous planar π cloud.
  2. 2For (ii), the sp³ carbon breaks planarity and cyclic conjugation, and four π-electrons do not equal 4n+2 for an integer n.
  3. 3For (iii), cyclooctatetraene has eight π-electrons. It avoids antiaromaticity by adopting a non-planar tub conformation, so the required planar continuous π system is absent; eight is also a 4n count, not a 4n+2 count.

Final answer

All three are non-aromatic: (i) has incomplete conjugation caused by an sp³ carbon despite six π-electrons; (ii) has an sp³ carbon and only four π-electrons; and (iii) is non-planar with eight π-electrons.

371

NCERT Exercise 9.13 — Benzene to Substituted Aromatic Compounds

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For (i), brominate benzene first. Br is an ortho/para director, so nitration of bromobenzene gives ortho and para products; isolate the para isomer.
  2. 2
  3. 3For (ii), nitrate benzene first. NO₂ is a meta director, so chlorination of nitrobenzene gives the meta product.
  4. 4
  5. 5For (iii), use Friedel–Crafts methylation to obtain toluene. CH₃ is ortho/para directing, so nitration gives the para isomer along with the ortho isomer, which can be separated.
  6. 6
  7. 7For (iv), carry out Friedel–Crafts acylation with acetyl chloride and anhydrous aluminium chloride.
  8. 8

Final answer

Use bromination then nitration for p-nitrobromobenzene; nitration then chlorination for m-nitrochlorobenzene; methylation then nitration for p-nitrotoluene; and Friedel–Crafts acetylation for acetophenone.

372

NCERT Exercise 9.14 — Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Carbons

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Classify a carbon by the number of other carbon atoms directly attached to it: one gives primary, two secondary, three tertiary and four quaternary.
  2. 2The five terminal CH₃ groups are primary carbons. Each is bonded to three H atoms, so the primary set carries 15 H atoms in total.
  3. 3The two CH₂ carbons in the main chain are secondary carbons. Each is bonded to two H atoms, giving 4 H in total.
  4. 4The CH carbon at the right-hand branch point is tertiary and carries one H. The central C(CH₃)₂ carbon is quaternary and carries no H.

Final answer

There are five primary carbons with 15 H atoms, two secondary carbons with 4 H atoms, one tertiary carbon with 1 H atom, and one quaternary carbon with no H.

373

NCERT Exercise 9.15 — Effect of Branching on Boiling Point

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Alkanes are held together mainly by London dispersion forces, whose strength increases with the area of contact between molecules.
  2. 2Branching makes a molecule more compact and generally reduces its effective surface area, so isomers with greater branching have weaker intermolecular contact.
  3. 3Less energy is therefore needed to separate branched molecules, and their boiling points are lower than those of the corresponding less-branched isomers.

Final answer

Greater branching lowers the boiling point because the compact molecules have less surface contact and weaker London dispersion forces.

374

NCERT Exercise 9.16 — Markovnikov and Peroxide Addition

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Without peroxide, HBr adds by an ionic electrophilic mechanism. Protonation at the terminal carbon produces the more stable secondary carbocation at C-2.
  2. 2
  3. 3This is Markovnikov orientation: hydrogen adds to the carbon with more hydrogens and bromine to the more substituted carbon.
  4. 4Benzoyl peroxide initiates a radical chain. It decomposes to benzoyloxy radicals, which ultimately generate bromine radicals.
  5. 5
  6. 6A bromine radical adds to the terminal carbon so that the radical left on the middle carbon is secondary and more stable.
  7. 7
  8. 8That radical abstracts hydrogen from HBr, forming 1-bromopropane and regenerating Br•. The chain continues.
  9. 9

Final answer

The ionic mechanism follows Markovnikov's rule through a secondary carbocation and gives 2-bromopropane; the peroxide-initiated radical mechanism gives the more stable secondary radical orientation and ultimately 1-bromopropane, the anti-Markovnikov product.

375

NCERT Exercise 9.17 — Ozonolysis of o-Xylene

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Ozonolysis cleaves the ring double bonds and turns the ring carbons into carbonyl groups. The possible fragments are glyoxal, methylglyoxal and butane-2,3-dione (diacetyl).
  2. 2Glyoxal is OHC–CHO; methylglyoxal is CH₃CO–CHO; and butane-2,3-dione is CH₃CO–COCH₃.
  3. 3A single fixed Kekulé drawing would suggest a particular pair of cleavages. The collection of products is instead consistent with the equivalent double-bond arrangements of a resonance hybrid.
  4. 4Thus ozonolysis supports delocalisation of the π electrons rather than one permanently fixed set of three isolated double bonds.

Final answer

The products are glyoxal, methylglyoxal and butane-2,3-dione (diacetyl). Their formation supports benzene as a resonance hybrid of equivalent Kekulé structures.

376

NCERT Exercise 9.18 — Acidic Character of Hydrocarbons

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The relevant carbon–hydrogen bonds are sp, sp² and sp³ in ethyne, benzene and n-hexane respectively.
  2. 2Greater s-character pulls the bonding electron pair closer to carbon and makes the corresponding hydrogen easier to remove as H⁺.
  3. 3Therefore the sp C–H bond of ethyne is the most acidic, the sp² C–H bond of benzene is intermediate, and the sp³ C–H bonds of n-hexane are least acidic.

Final answer

Decreasing acidic character is ethyne > benzene > n-hexane, because the order of carbon hybridisation is sp > sp² > sp³ and acidity increases with s-character.

377

NCERT Exercise 9.19 — Electrophilic and Nucleophilic Substitution

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Benzene has a delocalised π-electron cloud above and below the ring. Its electron-rich π system attracts an electrophile and forms a resonance-stabilised σ-complex.
  2. 2Loss of H⁺ from the σ-complex restores aromaticity, so substitution is strongly favoured over addition.
  3. 3A nucleophile is electron-rich and is repelled by the electron-rich aromatic ring. Ordinary nucleophilic substitution would also require loss of aromaticity or a poor leaving group.
  4. 4Special electron-withdrawing substituents and activation can make nucleophilic substitution possible, but benzene itself reacts much more readily with electrophiles.

Final answer

Benzene's electron-rich π cloud readily attracts electrophiles, while nucleophiles are repelled and substitution by a nucleophile would require loss of aromaticity.

378

NCERT Exercise 9.20 — Conversion of Hydrocarbons to Benzene

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1For (i), pass ethyne through a red-hot iron tube at about 873 K. Three ethyne molecules undergo cyclic polymerisation.
  2. 2
  3. 3For (ii), pass ethene through the same red-hot iron tube; three ethene molecules cyclise to benzene.
  4. 4
  5. 5For (iii), aromatise hexane over heated chromium(oxide)/aluminium(oxide), commonly at 773 K and elevated pressure.
  6. 6

Final answer

Ethyne and ethene each cyclotrimerise in a red-hot iron tube, while hexane is aromatised over Cr₂O₃/Al₂O₃ at high temperature and pressure.

379

NCERT Exercise 9.21 — Alkenes Giving 2-Methylbutane

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1The carbon skeleton of 2-methylbutane is CH₃–CH(CH₃)–CH₂–CH₃. Place a C=C bond between any two adjacent carbons of this skeleton without changing the skeleton.
  2. 2Putting the double bond between C-1 and C-2 gives CH₂=C(CH₃)–CH₂–CH₃, 2-methylbut-1-ene.
  3. 3Putting it between C-2 and C-3 gives CH₃–C(CH₃)=CH–CH₃, 2-methylbut-2-ene.
  4. 4Writing the same skeleton from the other end places the double bond between the terminal carbon and the adjacent branched carbon, giving CH₂=CH–CH(CH₃)–CH₃, 3-methylbut-1-ene.

Final answer

The three alkenes are 2-methylbut-1-ene, 2-methylbut-2-ene and 3-methylbut-1-ene, with the structures shown above.

380

NCERT Exercise 9.22 — Reactivity Towards Electrophiles

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1An electron-donating group increases electron density in the ring and activates it towards electrophilic attack. An electron-withdrawing nitro group decreases electron density and deactivates the ring.
  2. 2In (a), chlorobenzene has no ring nitro group, p-nitrochlorobenzene has one deactivating NO₂ group, and 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene has two strong deactivating groups.
  3. 3In (b), CH₃ activates the ring, one NO₂ group deactivates it, and two NO₂ groups deactivate it most strongly.

Final answer

(a) Chlorobenzene > p-nitrochlorobenzene > 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene. (b) Toluene > p-nitrotoluene > p-dinitrobenzene.

381

NCERT Exercise 9.23 — Nitration of Aromatic Compounds

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Nitration is an electrophilic aromatic substitution and is favoured by groups that increase electron density in the ring.
  2. 2The methyl group of toluene donates electron density by hyperconjugation and the +I effect, so it activates the ring.
  3. 3Each nitro group withdraws electron density strongly. The two NO₂ groups in m-dinitrobenzene make that ring the least reactive towards an electrophile.

Final answer

Toluene nitrates most easily. The order of reactivity is toluene > benzene > m-dinitrobenzene because CH₃ activates the ring whereas NO₂ groups deactivate it.

382

NCERT Exercise 9.24 — Alternative Lewis Acid for Ethylation

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Friedel–Crafts alkylation needs a Lewis acid to generate the electrophilic alkylating species from an alkyl halide. Anhydrous FeCl₃ is one suitable alternative, and BF₃ is another.
  2. 2With ethyl chloride, benzene undergoes Friedel–Crafts alkylation to ethylbenzene.
  3. 3

Final answer

Anhydrous ferric chloride, FeCl₃, can be used; boron trifluoride, BF₃, is another acceptable Lewis acid.

383

NCERT Exercise 9.25 — Why Wurtz Is Unsuitable for Odd-Carbon Alkanes

1Exercise question

Step-by-step solution

  1. 1Wurtz coupling joins two alkyl groups from two alkyl-halide molecules. If two different alkyl halides are used, each can also couple with a molecule of its own kind.
  2. 2To make an odd-carbon alkane by this method, the two different alkyl groups must have different numbers of carbon atoms, so self-coupling products are unavoidable.
  3. 3For example, ethyl bromide and propyl bromide can form the desired pentane, but they also form butane and hexane.
  4. 4
  5. 5The desired pentane is therefore contaminated with butane and hexane, making the reaction unsuitable for a clean preparation.

Final answer

Odd-carbon alkanes require two different alkyl halides in Wurtz coupling, so self-coupling gives a mixture. Ethyl bromide plus propyl bromide gives pentane together with butane and hexane.

Quick Revision

Key formulas at a glance

Memorise these equations — direct application numericals and derivations in CBSE & JEE frequently hinge on these.

Mole–mass relation

Mole–volume relation (STP)

Ideal gas law

Empirical formula

Percent yield

Wave–particle relation

Bohr energy

Bohr radius

de Broglie wavelength

Effective nuclear charge

Steric number

Dipole moment

Enthalpy of a process

Calorimetry

Gibbs free energy

Gibbs energy and K

Equilibrium constant

Kc–Kp relation

Le Chatelier

pH

Ionisation constant

Cell potential

Degree of unsaturation

Exam Strategy

How this chapter is asked

High-yield question patterns observed across CBSE boards, JEE Main & Advanced, and NEET.

  • In mole-concept problems, start from the balanced equation and the limiting reagent — never scale ratios from an unbalanced equation.
  • The 22.4 L mol⁻¹ ideal-gas volume holds only at 273.15 K and 1 atm; convert to any other T/P with PV = nRT, not by proportional scaling.
  • When writing electronic configurations, fill the lowest-energy orbitals first (1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d) and remember the Cr and Cu exceptions for half-filled and full-filled d shells.
  • A pure solid or pure liquid is never written into a Kc or Kp expression — its activity is 1.
  • Kc and Kp describe the same equilibrium at one temperature; the bridge is Kp = Kc(RT)Δn, where Δn counts gas moles only.
  • In pH questions compute [H⁺] first, then pH = −log[H⁺]; for weak acids check whether the 5% approximation is valid before ignoring x.
  • A common ion suppresses the ionisation of the weak acid or base — this is the common-ion effect, and it is what a salt added to an acid achieves.
  • Le Chatelier predicts the direction of shift, never the new position: say 'shifts to the right', not 'goes to completion'.
  • Atomic radius decreases left to right across a period while ionisation energy generally increases, but the trend breaks at Be/B and N/O — filled and half-filled subshells are more stable.
  • For any shape question, count σ-bonds plus lone pairs to get the steric number first; the steric number fixes the hybridisation, and the hybridisation fixes the shape.
  • In calorimetry, watch the sign: an endothermic solution cools, so ΔT is negative and q = mcΔT comes out negative for the process.
  • Spontaneity is decided by ΔG = ΔH − TΔS at the temperature of the question, not by ΔH alone; an endothermic process can still be spontaneous if TΔS wins.
  • Balance redox equations by the half-reaction or oxidation-number method, and use the acidic or basic medium stated in the question — never mix the two.
  • In cell potential questions, E°cell = E°cathode − E°anode; multiply E° by neither the stoichiometric coefficient nor n, only ΔG° and nF scale with the reaction as written.
  • For IUPAC naming, choose the longest chain with the maximum number of substituents, number for the lowest locant at the first point of difference, and name the substituent as a prefix.
  • In aromatic electrophilic substitution the electrophile replaces ring H and the ring stays aromatic throughout — the sigma complex, not a free carbocation, is the intermediate.
  • For alkene additions, identify the carbocation stability first; Markovnikov orientation follows from it, and peroxide effect reverses H⁺ orientation only for HBr.

FAQ

Frequently asked questions

Which Class 11 Chemistry chapters should I solve from NCERT first?

Start with the mole concept (Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry), because stoichiometry, concentration terms and the gas laws are used all year. Then do Structure of Atom for the JEE/NEET numericals, Chemical Bonding for the shape-and-hybridisation questions, and Equilibrium, which carries the heaviest Class 11 board weightage.

How do I get full marks in Class 11 Chemistry board solutions?

Write every method step — state the formula or law, substitute with units, simplify, and box the final answer. In this chapter set that means the balanced equation before any mole ratio, electron-by-electron configurations, oxidation numbers before a redox balance, and the full Kc or Kp expression before substitution.

Are these NCERT solutions enough for JEE Main and NEET?

For the full Class 11 syllabus, yes as a foundation — every rationalised chapter here is a direct NEET and JEE Main topic, and the last two chapters (organic basics and hydrocarbons) are the base the whole Class 12 organic block rests on. Use the worked problems to master the method, then add JEE/NEET-level numericals for speed and accuracy under time pressure.

Are these solutions in the correct chapter order?

Yes — all nine chapters follow the official rationalised NCERT order: some basic concepts of chemistry, structure of atom, classification of elements and periodicity, chemical bonding and molecular structure, chemical thermodynamics, equilibrium, redox reactions, organic chemistry, and hydrocarbons. Exercise numbers match the rationalised textbook, not the older 14-chapter edition.

Should I memorise the NCERT chemistry exercises or understand them?

Understand them. The same four or five patterns recur in every chapter and in the exam — limiting reagent, empirical formula from percentage composition, Le Chatelier direction, and the pH/pOH pair. Once the pattern is clear, the numbers change but the method does not.

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